Staying Within Proper Theological Boundaries: A Fascinating Icon

Nicaea_icon_(cropped_Greek_text_homoousion_tooi_p(a)tri,_Of_one_Being_with_the_Father) On a number of levels, I find this icon fascinating![1]

It takes the phrase homoousion tō Patri (“co-essential/consubstantial with the Father”) from the Greek of the Nicene Creed and adapts it in rather curious ways. Simultaneously, it appears to extract at least one other aspect of the message of the Creed into it.

First of all, the text/icon appears to be an unusual combination of mostly majuscule (akin to UPPER CASE letters) and one or a few minuscule letters (akin to lower case letters).[2] Secondly, and more obviously, the icon has placed one character over another multiple times.[3] Thirdly, it features an unusually depicted staurogram—the superimposition of a rho (P) over a tau (T), designed to visually represent Christ hanging on the Cross.[4] The latter may be a way of incorporating “crucified for us” from the Creed into the word for “Father” (here in its dative form ΠАΤΡΙ), by fashioning the alpha (A), tau (T), and rho (P) into one composite character in which each share one vertical stroke. Perhaps this is the icon-maker’s way of expressing that, in order to maintain the ‘co-essence’ of the Trinitarian ‘Persons’, in a sense, God the Father ‘died’ on the Cross?[5]

Fascinating!

To better explain the particulars, allow me to provide my (non-artist’s) rendering of what this icon would look like if the phrase were in all majuscule without any letters placed atop or superimposed upon any others. In keeping with the usual practice, no spaces are placed between the words (diacritics, aka accents, are included).

With the FatherThe accent over the first omicron (O) is what is known as the rough breathing mark, indicating to sound the vowel with a prepended English “H” (“ha”). This is the reason for its transliterated spelling homoousion.

For comparison, below is the majuscule in modern keyboard text (sans diacritics) and below that is the minuscule (with diacritics, including the iota subscript under the omega):

Nicaea_icon_(cropped_Greek_text_homoousion_tooi_p(a)tri,_Of_one_Being_with_the_Father) ΟΜΟΟΥCΙΟΝΤШΠАΤΡΙ

ὁμοούσιον τῷ Πατρὶ

The 3rd ‘character’ from the left in the icon, which resembles a ‘snowman’, is actually three letters stacked one atop another. But they are not even in the correct order! They should be omicron (O), omicron (O), upsilon (Y). However, assuming the ‘hands’ of the ‘snowman’ indicate the upper portion of the upsilon (Y), then the icon shows an omicron at top, the chopped upsilon below that, and the second omicron on the bottom. I can only speculate as to why the icon was written this way.

Note that the way the acute accent (΄) is placed in the icon it appears to be intended to go over the truncated upsilon (Y), as opposed to the upper omicron. This would be consistent with where it should be placed had it been written out normally (see my rendering above). I might speculate that the second omicron (O) is at the bottom because of what might be considered an alternate spelling, in which this second omicron is dropped completely.[6]

In order, the next oddity in the icon is the omega (ω) under the tau (T), and the circumflex (˜) over the tau instead of the omega (see my rendering above for correct placement of circumflex). Given the stacking of omega under tau, the positioning of the circumflex makes sense. In other words, the circumflex would normally go over the omega, and since the tau is stacked over the omega, it follows that the circumflex would go over the tau/omega.

This tau/omega constitutes the Greek article (in its dative form), which is translated here as “with-the”. With that in mind, this looks to be simply an artist’s rendition of the article in this important phrase from the Creed. I like the idea!

The final curiosity in the icon is by far the most intriguing. Within the word ΠАΤΡΙ, the artist here has stacked the alpha (A—but see my rendering above for the usual depiction of this letter) atop the tau (T), and the rho (P) just under the tau, in such a way as to approximate the stylized staurogram. Essentially, the artist ‘bent’ the alpha such that the long, angled line of it is verticalized in order to conjoin it with the vertical axis of the tau, while also placing the curved portion of the alpha atop the horizontal bar of the tau. Comparatively, in the usual staurogram it is the curved portion of the rho (P) which sits atop the horizontal bar of the tau (T), in order to resemble a drooping head on a cross. Here it looks as though the artist purposefully drew one head over the horizontal bar of the tau (the curved portion of the alpha) and another head just below the horizontal bar (the curved portion of the rho) in order to depict not one, but two heads on the Cross. Is this to indicate Father and Son (cf. Acts 20:28: “…Ekklēsia of God, which [God] purchased with His own blood”)? Restating from above: Is this the artist’s way of expressing that, in order to maintain the ‘co-essence’ of the Trinitarian ‘Persons’, in a sense, God the Father also ‘died’ on the Cross?

Once again, fascinating!

Nicaea_icon_(cropped_Greek_text_homoousion_tooi_p(a)tri,_Of_one_Being_with_the_Father)

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[1] This icon is sourced from the Wikipedia page of Nicene Creed, under the History section. I have not yet determined its provenance.

[2] Assuming this icon was intended to appear contemporaneous with the establishment of the 381 (or 325) Creed, the presence of the iota subscript—the tiny downward mark (͵) centered under the omega (ω)—which was introduced ca. 12th century AD by Byzantine philologists, would render it an anachronism, if the omega is indeed majuscule, which (most of) the rest of the text seems to be. (But see note 3 below.) This is because majuscule (uncial) declined in use ca. 9th-10th century as minuscule had emerged (ca. 8th century) and was favored. But since omega looks the same whether in majuscule or minuscule (besides the smaller size of the latter), it is difficult to determine the intention of the icon maker with respect to this letter. Is the omega here in minuscule instead? If minuscule, why does the rest of the text appear to be in majuscule (but, again, see note 3 below)? If majuscule, why the iota subscript? A curiosity! (Side note: though the majuscule omega is usually depicted as Ω in Greek alphabet listings, Greek NT manuscripts use Ш instead, as far as I am aware.)

[3] Since the omicron looks the same whether in majuscule (O) or minuscule (o), besides the size, one cannot determine which is in mind in the ‘snowman’ character—the third from the left—which is actually three letters (omicron, omicron, upsilon) in one space! It is also possible the upsilon—the ‘hands’ of the ‘snowman’—is in minuscule (υ), as opposed to majuscule (Y). More on this further below.

[4] Staurograms are found in a number of Greek NT manuscripts from Alexandria, Egypt. In these, the Greek word for “cross” (stauros, CTAYPOC) is abbreviated and styled to resemble Christ hanging on the Cross. See hyperlink in main text above. Cf. the following papyrus at The Center for the Study of New Testament Manuscripts, specifically the end of the fourth line of manuscript P75 @ Luke 14:27. Click on manuscript to enlarge. Note that the word here (in the accusative) is CTAYPON, yet the staurogram eliminates both the alpha (A) and the upsilon (Y) as it depicts one hanging on a cross. Also note the overline atop the entire word, which was standard practice for what are known as Nomina Sacra.

[5] This is not necessarily heretical; it depends on how it is construed. See Forsaken For Our Sake, taking special note of footnote 1 there.

[6] See Schaff/Wace, EXCURSUS ON THE WORD HOMOUSIOS, as found on pp 3­–4 here.

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Staying Within Proper Theological Boundaries: Important Words

This post is an extension of Staying Within Proper Theological Boundaries. Here we look at the color-coded words plus “Almighty” in the 381 Nicene Creed.

We believe in one God, the Father Almighty [pantokratōr], Maker [poitēs] of heaven and earth, of all things visible and invisible.

And (we believe) in one Lord Jesus Christ—the sole-kin/kind [monogenēs] Son of God, begotten [gennaō] of the Father before all ages [aiōn], Light of Light, true God of true God, begotten [gennaō] not made [poieō], coessential [homo-ousia] with the Father—through whom all things came to be; Who, for us men [anthrōpos] and for our salvation, descended from heaven—enfleshed by the Holy Spirit, and of the virgin Mary—and became man [en-anthrōpos] . . .

Comparing Paired Words

Following are the color-coded terms from the Creed and reasons for their highlighting here.

God, the Father is the ultimate “Maker” (Poitēs) of all things, while the Son is the agent through Whom all things came to be. Accordingly, the Son is not “made” (poieō) but “begotten” (gennaō) instead, which means He is not a creature.

The Son is also “begotten” (gennaō) of the Father before all “ages” (aiōn), meaning ‘pre-time’. It is difficult to speak of ‘a time before time’ without using some sort of temporal category (before all ages); but the implication here is the Son was “begotten” in the eternal realm, as opposed to the temporal realm, thereby establishing His eternality. In other words, since time and space are an integral part of creation—and we have established the Son is “not made”—speaking in terms of Him ‘predating’ all “ages” is to express that an intrinsic trait of the Son is eternality.

The use of “before all ages” with “begotten” serves as a means by which to describe what is implied of the Word (ho Logos) in John 1:1–2: In the beginning was the Word. In the beginning the Word [‘already’] was. Stated more succinctly, ‘Before’ the creation event, the Son ‘alreadywas with God.

The Son of God became man (en-anthrōpos) when He was “enfleshed” (“became flesh”—John 1:14) “for us men (anthrōpos) and for our salvation”. The Son of God willingly condescended to take the form of man in the person of our Lord Jesus Christ, in order to become a sacrifice for us—a Divine mystery for the sake of humanity.

Who is ‘Almighty’?

God is “Almighty”. Jesus is God (the God-man). But can we say Jesus is “Almighty”?

The use of “Almighty” (Pantokratōr) in the very beginning of the Creed prompts this question.

We believe in one God, the Father Almighty [pantokratōr], Maker [poitēs] of heaven and earth, of all things visible and invisible.

This word “Almighty” is specifically applied to God the Father, but not to the Son. So, would it be proper to ascribe this same title to Jesus?

Pantokratōr (“Almighty”) is only found ten times in the New Testament. Nine occur in Revelation (1:8; 4:8; 11:17; 15:3; 16:7, 14; 19:6, 15; 21:22). The remaining one is in 2Cor 6:18, where it is sourced from the Old Testament (“LORD [YHWH], Almighty”). In Revelation most all instances are in the form “Lord God, Almighty”, except two as “God, Almighty” (16:14; 19:15) and one as “Lord God . . . Almighty” (1:8). This latter one is of special interest here. In the ellipsis is the same verbiage as Revelation 1:4: the One Who is, Who was, and Who is coming, which denotes a Divine Title (or Name)1 and is clearly a reference to God the Father in this context.

“I am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the Lord God, “Who is, Who was, and Who is to come, the Almighty.”2

Moreover, the next occurrence of “Almighty” (4:8) also contains this same Divine Title (Name). Therefore, it would appear that the referent in 1:8 is also God the Father. This seems especially so given that the remaining instances of “Almighty” in Revelation all refer to the Father. And if we accept the implications of the language in in the 381 Nicene Creed (“one God, the Father Almighty”), then we should definitively conclude that 1:8 be understood as words of God the Father.

Yet in many ‘Red Letter’ Bible versions, these words are attributed to Jesus. These include: Amplified Bible, BRG Bible, 1599 Geneva Bible, International Children’s Bible, International Standard Version, Legacy Standard Bible, Modern English Version, New American Standard Bible, New American Standard Bible 1995, New Century Version, New International Version 1984, New King James Version, New Life Version, and the World English Bible.3 I contend these versions are in error, unless some strong evidence can be adduced to support such an interpretation.

Now, we must note that contained in Revelation 1:8 is the Title “the Alpha and the Omega” (cf. 21:6), which Jesus applies to Himself in 22:13. Moreover, Jesus also applies “the Beginning and the End” to Himself in 22:13, and this same Title is used by “the One Who sits on the Throne” (God the Father) in 21:6. In other words, there is quite a bit of overlap in the Titles of the Book of Revelation.

But then again, the Title (Name) the One Who is, Who was, and Who is coming is only ever applied to the Father.

Yet perhaps I’m missing a more solid connection to support attributing the words of Revelation 1:8 to Jesus? Thoughts or challenges?

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1 See Not Declining the Divine Name?

2 It is possible the quotation ends just before says the Lord God: “I am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the Lord God, the One Who is, Who was, and Who is to come, the Almighty. But this has no bearing on the issue at hand.

3 These are all found on BibleGateway, except the New International Version 1984, which I have a printed copy of. Following are among those Red Letter versions which do not use red lettering for Revelation 1:8: Christian Standard Bible, Common English Bible, English Standard Version, English Standard Version UK, Holman Christian Standard Bible, The Living Bible, New International Version, New International Version UK, and New Living Translation.

Staying Within Proper Theological Boundaries

In the formative years of the Christian Ekklēsia (“Church”)1 synods (councils) were convened in response to doctrinal controversies and other matters needing refinement. Those synods gaining acceptance in the Ekklēsia at large became known as ecumenical councils.2 Eventually a total of Seven Ecumenical Councils were called.3 The very first of these was the First Council of Nicaea in 325.4

Nicaea 325 primarily sought to define the Divine nature of the person of Jesus Christ, by clarifying His ontological relationship to God the Father—as revealed by Scripture.5 The goal was to settle Christological controversy (see Arius and Arianism).6 The Nicene Creed of 325 resulted. Nevertheless the controversy raged on, so a second council was convened to end it at last.7 Delegates gathered in Constantinople in 381. Another synod was held in this same city in 553; so, somewhat confusingly, this Second Ecumenical Council became known as the First Council of Constantinople (381).8

At this First Council of Constantinople in 381 the Nicene Creed of 325 was both expanded and stream-lined. This new Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed (Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed) was later known simply as “the Nicene Creed”.9 To alleviate possible confusion, we will call it “the 381 Nicene Creed”.

The 381 Nicene Creed

The original text of the 381 Nicene Creed is in Greek. Philip Schaff’s Greek text in The Creeds of Christendom undergirds the translation below.10 This translation (mine) differs a bit from Schaff’s own English (as found, e.g., in the Wikipedia entry).11 Important Greek words are bracketed and placed just after their English counterparts. Explanations for their importance will follow. Words repeated in the Creed for the apparent purpose of comparison or contrast are color-coded. “We believe” is in the original text only once, opening the Creed, but is parenthetically inserted at points for readability:

We believe in one God, the Father Almighty [pantokratōr], Maker [poitēs] of heaven and earth, of all things visible and invisible.

And (we believe) in one Lord Jesus Christ—the sole-kin/kind [monogenēs] Son of God, begotten [gennaō] of the Father before all ages [aiōn], Light of Light, true God of true God, begotten [gennaō] not made [poieō], coessential [homo-ousia] with the Father—through whom all things came to be; Who, for us men [anthrōpos] and for our salvation, descended from heaven—enfleshed by the Holy Spirit, and of the virgin Mary—and became man [en-anthrōpos]; Who was crucified for us under Pontius Pilate, endured suffering, was buried, rose on the third day according to the Scriptures, and then ascended into heaven, and now sits at the right hand of the Father; and Who again will come with glory to judge the living and the dead—Him in whose kingdom there will be no end.

And (we believe) in the Holy Spirit, the Life-giving Lord, who proceeds from the Father, who with the Father and the Son together is worshiped and glorified, who spoke through the Prophets.

(We believe) in one holy, universal [katholikos], and apostolic Ekklēsia; we profess one baptism for remission of sins; we look forward to the resurrection of the dead and to the life of the age [aiōn] to come. Amen.12

Before proceeding further we must acknowledge that the Creed cannot be understood as on par with Scripture. Yet, in agreement with Oliver Crisp, this creedal statement and others from the Seven Ecumenical Councils “are theologically binding because they are repositories of dogmatic reflection upon Scripture by the undivided Church, under the guidance of the Holy Spirit.”13 Accordingly, we must affirm that the above Creed is an accurate Scriptural interpretation. As such, it erects proper doctrinal borders within which to confine ourselves, in order to remain within the bounds of Christian orthodoxy.

This is not to state the 381 Creed is an exhaustive treatise on Christology, theology, or the Trinity. It is not. Yet one should be careful not to deviate from any of its language or tenets.

Examining the Text and Context

Applying a bit of discourse analysis may illumine the intents and purposes of the drafters.

While large portions of the 381 Creed adopt or paraphrase Scripture, the majority of the Creed is built around 1Corinthians 8:6, borrowing or mirroring its Greek text.

The first section sources one God the Father, (eĩs Theos ho Patēr) from 1Cor 8:6, inserts Almighty, then adds bits and paraphrasing of Colossians 1:16 (heaven and earth, visible and invisible). Both verses overlap in all things (panta). Yet, interestingly, the New Testament (NT) context of the Colossians verse refers to the Son as agent of creation, with the Father as implied Creator, whereas here in the Creed the Father is explicitly Maker. This appears to serve the dual purpose of making explicit what is implied in Col 1:16 (Father as Maker), while alluding to its explicit meaning (Son as agent). This allusion, then, provides a suitable bridge to the next section.

In the second section of the Creed, the middle portion of 1Cor 8:6 is found in the use of one Lord Jesus Christ (eĩs Kyrios Iēsous Christos). Then the text inserts descriptors of Christ (evidenced by my use of em dashes in the translation) before the resumption of 1Cor 8:6, which illustrates the Son’s agency in creation: through Whom all things (di’ oũ ta panta).14 This verbiage approximates that of John 1:3 (panta di’ auto, =all things through Him), and the Creed adds came-to-be (egento) from that verse in John.

The second section also appears to contain a chiastic pattern.15 It opens and closes with the portions of the Corinthians verse noted just above, thus providing an inclusio, framing this subsection:

A1 one Lord Jesus Christ . . .
–– B1 monogenēs Son of God
––– C1 begotten of the Father before all ages
––––– D1 Light of Light
––––– D2 true God of true God
––– C2 begotten not made
–– B2 homo-ousia with the Father
A2 . . . through Whom all things came to be

A1 begins and A2 ends this subsection. We can readily see that C2 is intended to parallel C1 in the repeating of begotten. The same applies to D1 and D2, given the obvious parallelism of Light of Light and God of God. Therefore, in similar fashion, B2 is probably meant to parallel B1 in some key way. Assuming so, the juxtaposition of monogenēs with homo-ousia may assist in defining the former through an understanding of the latter.

Much more can be gleaned, but this will suffice for our purposes here.

The words highlighted in the Creed will be expounded upon in future posts.

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1 I prefer Ekklēsia over “Church” given the convoluted etymology of the latter. For explanation see Re-Assembly Required.

2 See Philip Schaff and Henry Wace, eds., The Seven Ecumenical Councils, Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers, Second Series, Volume 14 (New York: Charles Scribner’s Sons, 1900; reprint, Peabody, MA: Hendrickson, 1994), pp xi–xii. Also found at Christian Classics Ethereal Library—here.

3 But not every current Christian tradition affirms them all. The resultant creedal statements are more likely to be affirmed while the associated canons are more likely to be rejected (or forgotten!). Regardless of tradition, I think it important that the individual believer be at least somewhat familiar with these seven.

4 Confusingly, there was another council held in Nicaea in 787, accounting for why this is known as the “First Council of Nicaea”. The 787 is the “Second Council of Nicaea”. A similar thing occurred in Constantinople, as we shall see.

5 Though see Schaff and Wace, Seven Ecumenical Councils: “The question they were called upon to answer was not ‘What do I think is probable, or even certain, from Holy Scripture?’ but, ‘What have I been taught, what has been intrusted [sic] to me to hand down to others?’” (p 2). However, one must ask what exactly was handed down but that which was assumed to have been properly exegeted and interpreted from the Scriptures? In fact the Schaff and Wace verbiage on the next two pages (pp 3–4 [in EXCURSUS ON THE WORD HOMOUSIOS]) appears to contradict this statement.

6 See Gregg R. Allison, Historical Theology: An Introduction to Christian Doctrine (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2011), pp 368–371.

7 See Allison, Historical Theology, pp 371–372.

8 So the 553 council became known as the “Second Council of Constantinople”. There was even a third synod convened in this same city, held 680–681, which became known as the “Third Council of Constantinople”.

9 See Allison, Historical Theology, p 372.

10 Philip Schaff, The Creeds of Christendom with a History and Critical Notes, ed. David S. Schaff, 3 Vols., 6th ed. (New York, NY: Harper and Row, 1931; reprint, Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Books, 2007), pp II.57–58.

11 See Schaff, Creeds, I.28–29. Translation below is mine, with help from: Rodney J. Decker, Koine Greek Reader: Selections from the New Testament, Septuagint, and Early Christian Writers (Grand Rapids, MI: Kregel, 2007), pp 229–235; Gerald O’Collins, The Tripersonal God: Understanding and Interpreting the Trinity (Mahwah, NJ: Paulist Press, 1999), p 115.

12 Some of the differences between my translation and Schaff’s include “before all ages” in place of Schaff’s “before all worlds” and “through Whom all things came to be” in place of “by Whom all things were made”. On the former, the Greek is (as noted) aiōn, which is more literally “ages”, whereas the word for “worlds” would be kosmos. On the latter, the Greek preposition dia (διά) means’ “through” in dynamic contexts (see here), which seems best suited here, as opposed to Schaff’s “by”. Moreover, Schaff’s “were made” would imply that the Greek word is poieō or something similar (e.g. ktizō), while it is instead ginomai (here as the aorist egeneto), which is better rendered “came to be” or “became”. Taken together, this phrase best represents the Son as agent of creation: The Father, as Maker, created through the Son. See below.

13 Oliver D. Crisp, God Incarnate: Explorations in Christology (London/New York: T & T Clark, 2009), p 13; cf. p 14, esp. note 10.

14 It should be noted that this entire verse (1Cor 8:6) is verb-less—“to be” is to be assumed from 8:4–5. Accordingly, these are added to English versions in at least three different places in the verse (is . . . are . . . are).

15 See Palindromes and Chiastic Structures. Such patterns serve as mnemonic devices.

The Standing of the Pharisee and the Tax-Collector in the Temple

Abstract: In this parable (Luke 18:9–14) “stand” (ἵστημι, histēmi), in reference first to the Pharisee then the tax-collector, is usually interpreted literally. This bears out in commentaries, yet is also implied in common English translations. Argued here is that both occurrences of “stand” should instead be construed figuratively. Bases for these interpretations are found in historical  figurative uses of “stand”, figurative instances of the associated adverb “far away” (μακρόθεν, makrothen) in v. 13, plus an alternative application for the prepositional phrase “toward himself” (πρὸς ε͑αυτόν, pros heauton) accompanying “stand” in v. 11. Lexical and grammatical cues bolster the case. Psalms 137:6 LXX (138:6) and 9:22 LXX (10:1), along with Romans 4:2, provide key interpretative lenses.

Preface

It was supposed to be straightforward. I had planned to write a relatively short blog post for Thanksgiving Day [three years ago!] on the subject of thankfulness, comparing that which is relatively insignificant with the truly valuable and durable. My aim was to use the Parable of the Pharisee and the Tax-Collector (Luke 18:9-14) toward that end. But it was not to be.

I intended to translate from the Greek rather than rely on a common English version. However, as I began to work through Luke 18:11, then 18:13 especially, it seemed to me the typical translations may have overlooked something. But I wasn’t sure. And I’m still not sure, though I’m a bit more confident now that I’ve completed this enquiry.1

In accepting the conclusions herein, the commonly understood message of the parable would in no way be impaired. Yet, gainfully, some ambiguity would be alleviated, resulting in more coherence. At the same time the parable’s lesson would be heightened and more of its inherent irony revealed.

The Standing Issue

At issue is the Greek verb histēmi (ἵστημι), “stand”, as used in Luke 18:11 and 18:13.

Regarding verse 11 is it stood . . . prayed with/to/about himself (KJV, NASB, NET) or is it standing/stood by himself . . . praying/ed (ESV, NIV, NRSV, ISV)?2 In other words, does the prepositional phrase (PP) with/to/about/by himself (pros heauton) accompany “stand”, or does it go with prayed/ing instead?3

In verse 13 the tax-collector “stood” far off or at a distance. But stood from what or whom? Relatedly, is “stand” in verse 13 meant to be contrasted with “stand” in 11?

More to the point, should “stand” be interpreted literally or is a figurative construal to be preferred? In other words, did Jesus intend a figurative rather than a literal meaning in either or both verses?

After considerable rumination, I’m inclined to the position that “stand” should be interpreted figuratively in both verses (though perhaps semi-figuratively in v. 11).4 Further, I think Jesus meant to contrast one ‘standing’ with the other.

My initial apprehension in taking a stance on this hinged on the fact that only two sources even hinted at this being a possibility in the context of this parable.5 Excepting these two, the subject of figurativeness completely eluded the relevant discussions. Yet this verb stands figuratively in a number of New Testament (NT) passages.

Acts 1:23 is one example: And they placed/put [forward] two.6  In its context the disciples “placed” or “put” two candidates forward to replace Judas Iscariot. Many English versions extrapolate the intended meaning from the context, rendering the verb “nominated” (NIV, NLT, ISV), “proposed” (HCSB, NKJV, NET), or “appointed” (KJV). In other words, some use functional equivalence (aka dynamic equivalence7), recognizing the figurative application. Others adhere more closely to the root meaning of the word, as in “put forward” (ESV, NASB, ASV). Yet, arguably, it is Young’s Literal Translation—employing formal equivalence—which most succinctly captures the essence of the term in this context: And they set two.

It may prove helpful to expound on the usage in Acts 1:23 by analogy. Consider a chess game. Each player stands or places (sets) game pieces onto the chessboard. One player moves a piece to a space already occupied by a piece belonging to the opposing player, thereby capturing the opponent’s piece. This move results in the re-placement of the opponent’s piece by the capturing piece. The capturing piece now stands in the place formerly occupied by the opponent’s piece. The use of histēmi in Acts 1:23 is somewhat analogous, though figurative. The disciples figuratively stood Barsabbas and Matthias (they set two). In the position in which Judas formerly “stood”, either Barsabbas or Matthias would re-place him. Of the two set, only one would be chosen for the place formerly occupied by Judas, in order to stand in that position.

Figurative instances of this verb appear in John 8:44 ([the Devil] does not stand in the truth), Romans 5:2 (this grace in which you stand), and 1 Corinthians 15:1 (the gospel . . . in which you stand).8

The argument to be advanced here, to paraphrase a bit, is that the Pharisee “stood” self-righteously, while the tax-collector “stood” humbly. Certainly the context bears out their contrasting dispositions, but the position argued for below is that the verb histēmi should be interpreted figuratively in harmony with this attitudinal contrast.

A Literal Understanding of “Stand” Over-Interpreted?

In his respected commentary on Luke’s Gospel, Joseph A. Fitzmyer reflects (bold added): The contrast of the two types, their stances in the Temple, and their utterances in addressing God in prayer speak eloquently.9 Here Fitzmyer ventures close to apprehending what I perceive to be the intended figurative meaning of histēmi, “stand” in both 18:11 and 18:13. Instead, however, in his literalistic interpretation the author conjectures about the physical locations of the two characters within the Temple complex and with respect to each other:

We are not told where the Pharisee stood, but the contrast with v. 13 would imply that he moved far to the front of the Court of Israel within the Temple precincts . . . [The tax collector] stood far off. I.e. probably just within the confines of the Court of Israel.10

A literal preconception moves the writer to interpret the tax-collector’s having “stood far off” (makrothen hestōs) as necessarily in relation to the Pharisee’s presumed placement inside the Temple. Thus, according to the author, the tax-collector must be just barely inside the Court of Israel, while the Pharisee is positioned at the other end, near the Court of the Priests (the Holy Place).

But Jesus mentions the Temple only in a general sense, not in any particulars.  This is as He begins the parable, describing it as the destination of the two characters (and implicitly referring to it again in closing: “this man came down”).

More importantly, note that in the Pharisee’s ‘prayer’ he is aware of the tax-collector’s presence (“like this tax-collector”).11 Such awareness could be perceived as implying the tax-collector was in close proximity to the Pharisee. Furthermore, if the tax-collector were indeed spatially “far off” from the Pharisee, we might expect “that (έκει̑νος, ekeinos) tax-collector” rather than “this (ου͒τος, houtos) tax-collector” here.12 The Pharisee’s mention of the tax-collector, coupled with his use of “this” rather than “that” here, questions Fitzmyer’s (and many others’) conjectures.13

Perhaps the context suggests a better point of reference? As noted above, the parable contrasts the Pharisee’s self-exaltation with the tax-collector’s humility. Thus, “stand” (histēmi) in 11 and 13 could be intended to compare and contrast their respective self-perceptions as to how each “stood” in relation to God.

Understood this way, arguably the parable better coheres. That is, in such a view their contrasting prayer stances would be conveyed in more vivid relief, thereby providing more cohesion and coherence.14

Are there syntactical and lexical cues which could bolster such an interpretation?

The Target Framed and Revealed

Luke identified Jesus’ target audience of this parable in his preface (18:9), casting them very negatively as being self-righteous to the point of despising all those outside their group. As the parable unfolds, the reader will likely conclude that the Pharisee is part of this unnamed group, for his character fits the profile. While this seems evident enough in English translation, it is more obvious in the Greek.15 This demonstrates through repetition of lexical items (individual words, as in a distinct dictionary entry),16 paralleled syntactic structures, and particular use of certain verbal forms. These serve as intraconnecting self-references, providing cohesion. Through careful attention to these grammatical and lexical cues, comparisons and contrasts move to the fore, underscoring the irony in the climax.

The translation below is much closer to formal equivalence (‘word for word’) than functional equivalence (‘thought for thought’), in order to better illustrate these linguistic devices. Key words and phrases are color-coded and/or emphasized, with the corresponding Greek (transliterated) in parentheses. Explanations of their intraconnections follow further below. The two instances of “stand” (histēmi) and the associated PP in v. 11 and adverb in v. 13 are translated overly-literally, since the bases from which to derive their figurative renderings are yet to be substantiated.

18:9 And He also told this parable to some having-been-persuaded (pepoithotas) in (eph’) themselves (heautois) that they are righteous (dikaioi) and despising the rest (loipoi):
10 “Two men went-up (anabainō) to the Temple to pray—one a Pharisee and the other a tax-collector. 11 The Pharisee, stood (statheis) toward (pros) himself (heautou), these things began-praying, ‘O God, I thank you that I am not as the rest (loipoi) of mankind: thieves, unrighteous (adikoi), adulterers—or even as this tax-collector. 12 I fast twice a week, and I give ten percent of all I acquire.’
13 “Yet the tax-collector, distantly (makrothen) having-stood (hestōs), was unwilling to even lift his eyes to heaven, but began beating his chest, pleading, ‘O God, be conciliatory with me, the sinner!’
14 “I tell you, this man came-down (katabainō) to his home having-been-pronounced-righteous (dedikaiōmenos), rather than that other; for everyone who exalts (hypsōn) himself (heautou) shall be humbled (tapeinōthēsetai), but the one who humbles (tapeinōn) himself (heautou) shall be exalted (hypsōthēsetai).”

The parable itself opens and closes with the verb bainō: “went up” (anabainō) in v. 10 and “came down” (katabainō) in v. 14. This repetition of bainō provides lexical bookends to Jesus’ words, forming a simple inclusio, thereby framing the parable. Similar lexical framing devices link the Pharisee to the unnamed group in the preface (18:9).17 These devices also serve more broadly to link the preface to the parable proper (18:10–14).

Working backwards in v. 9, “the rest” (loipoi) is a duplicate of the Pharisee’s statement in his ‘prayer’ (v. 11), in which he thanks himself God that he is not like “the rest” (loipoi).18 The unnamed group’s despising of “the rest” in the preface thus lexically links and contextually connects to the Pharisee’s statement.

Included in this list of “the rest” in the Pharisee’s ‘prayer’ are the “unrighteous” (adikoi)—the antonym of “righteous” (dikaioi) from v. 9.19 Ironically, though, it is the humble tax-collector who is “pronounced-righteous” (dedikaiōmenos) in v. 14. Of course, this last reference (v. 14) provides stark contrast with the unnamed group in v. 9, while the latter furnishes further linguistic evidence to construe the Pharisee (v. 11) as part of this unnamed group. And the multiple usage of “righteous” conjoins the preface (v. 9) to the parable at two separate points (vv. 11 and 14). The first (9) and last (14) form a larger lexical frame, thereby binding the entire pericope.20

Continuing backwards in v. 9, the reflexive pronoun “themselves” (heautois) is thrice repeated in the parable proper, though as the singular “himself” (heautou). The first, in 11, likely connects with the plural in 9.21 In 14, the syntactically paralleled pair exalts himself . . . humbles himself unmistakably provides contrast.22 The first “himself” in 14 certainly refers to the Pharisee, which then links it to 11.23 This fourfold usage provides lexical intraconnection, the first (9) and last occurrence (the second in 14) of which establish yet another frame.

Observe also that the reflexive pronouns in 9 and 11 are each preceded by a preposition (epi {eph’} and pros, respectively). Given this and that there are three established lexical correspondences between 11 and 9 (loipoi – loipoi, adikoidikaioi, heautou – heautois), the unnamed group’s description as having-been-persuaded in themselves (pepoithotas eph’ heautois) may be intended to near-parallel the description of the Pharisee’s “stood toward himself” (statheis pros heauton) in 11.24 That is, considering the three lexical links, the phrase in 9 describing the unnamed group could function as a sort of linguistic superset of the syntactically similar phrase describing the Pharisee in 11. If so, these two clauses—each a participle + preposition + reflexive pronoun—would then form a syntactic parallel somewhat similar to the participle + reflexive pronoun paralleled in 14 (exalts himself . . . humbles himself). If this parallelism is granted in 9 and 11, the two clauses would form a syntactic frame, substantiating further connectivity between the Pharisee and the group—and between the parable and the preface.

To add credence to this suggestion of syntactic parallelism in 9 and 11, consider the Pharisee’s ‘standing’ alongside the tax-collector’s. The descriptive adverb “distantly” (or “far away”) for the tax-collector’s ‘standing’ could possibly be understood as in contrast to the Pharisee’s ‘standing’ “toward himself”, which would then provide an obvious connection (via contrast) between the two. Both instances of ‘stand’ are participles. The participle modifying the tax-collector in v. 13 is a perfect tense-form—the same form as the participle describing the unnamed group (having-been-persuaded). The perfect in each case describes a state: the unnamed group is in a particular state of persuasion (that they were righteous), while the tax-collector is in a particular state of standing (“distantly”). Are these perfect tense-forms meant to be paralleled for comparison, similar to the Pharisee’s ‘standing’ as contrasted with the tax-collector’s?

An answer to this question may well be found in the ironical climactic conclusion. It was the tax-collector “having-been-pronounced-righteous” in v. 14, while everyone exalting himself—the Pharisee (and likely each one in the unnamed group25)—will be humbled. This verb applying to the tax-collector in v.14 is another perfect participle, and it is the third and final verb in this pericope in the perfect tense-form.26 With all this in mind, the non-use of the perfect for the Pharisee’s ‘standing’ in 11 could be attributed to its connection (via syntactic parallelism) to the ‘state of persuasion’ of the unnamed group in 9.27 In other words, assuming the Pharisee belongs to (is a subset of) this group, he is already in a state of having been persuaded he is righteous, and his ‘standing’ in 11 carries this state from 9 as a given; and, because of this linkage, a summary (aorist tense-form) “stood (‘toward himself’)” would suffice.28

Whether one accepts the immediately aforementioned or not—and the following can lend further reasoning for accepting it—the usage of the three perfect participles (vv. 9, 13, and 14) establish syntactical and verbal intraconnection. The first and last perfect participles then provide yet another linguistic frame, conjoining the preface to the parable proper. And these two provide a sharp and wryly ironical contrast.

In sum, lexical and syntactical intraconnections provide cohesion and coherence within the pericope. Some of these devices also link the parable’s preface (18: 9) to the parable proper (18:10–14). This linkage also substantiates correspondence between the unnamed group and the Pharisee, which in turn provides starker contrast between the Pharisee and the tax-collector.

Taking in the above discourse analysis,29 it should be easier to perceive the two instances of “stand” here as likely a means by which to juxtapose the tax-collector with the Pharisee.30 In what follows evidence will be presented to reinforce this position.

The Tax-Collector’s Standing

Besides the figurative applications of histēmi, “stand” in Scripture shown earlier (John 8:44; Acts 1:23; Romans 5:2; 1Cor 15:1), there are examples of similar non-literal uses in the LXX (aka Septuagint, aka Greek Old Testament) and extra-biblical literature contemporaneous and near-contemporary with the NT. Some of these will follow further below. First, a brief grammatical and syntactical explanation is necessary.

Our investigation here centers on the use of histēmi, “stand” as a participle in both Luke 18:11 and 18:13. The Greek participle is best described as a verbal adjective, possessing characteristics of both a verb and an adjective. It will sometimes function more adverbially, primarily modifying the main verb, while concurrently acting adjectivally, describing the associated noun in some way. Alternatively, in some contexts its purpose is more adjectival, describing a noun by attaching a verbal component.31 For our purposes, Dana and Mantey’s grammar provides a sound basis for understanding the participles’ function here, which is more adverbial than adjectival (called adverbial participle):

This is the use in which the participle is involved in the relation of the noun which it modifies to the action or state expressed in the main verb, and exhibits predominantly verbal characteristics . . . Though in these uses the sense of the participle may be rendered with a clause, we cannot correctly assume that it is the syntactical equivalent of a clause, for its adjectival force is retained and relates it intimately with the noun as well as the verb. It is simply an adjective used to modify a verb, and hence may be appropriately called adverbial. The varieties in adverbial use come, not from alterations in the essential function of the participle, but from variations in the relation of its noun to the main verb and the context . . . Most often the English participle will best render the Greek, for Greek and English are very similar in their use of this idiom.32

In Luke 18:13 the relevant words here are the adverb + participle makrothen hestōs, “far-away having stood”.33 A comparative English example may prove helpful: The perpetually tardy scientist, nearly exhausted, endeavored to complete his time machine on time. The verb exhausted here is a participle describing the noun scientist. The adverb nearly modifies the participle exhausted. But the participle also describes the main verb endeavored in that it indicates the manner in which the scientist performed the action: he endeavored (to complete) in a nearly exhausted condition. This combination nearly exhausted roughly corresponds to the function of the adverb + participle makrothen hestōs in verse 13, when conceived figuratively.

In this parable, the adverb makrothen, “far-away”, modifies the participle hestōs, “having stood”. The adverb + participle (makrothen hestōs) here adjectivally describes the tax-collector, though it predominantly functions adverbially modifying the main verb. When understood figuratively, the tax-collector “distantly having stood” describes his attitudinal ‘stance’ (more on this below). Due to his feelings of unworthiness—evidenced by the emotion conveyed in the words he utters in his prayer—he adopts a penitent posture, probably with his head lowered. This explains why he would not even raise his eyes to heaven.

The key reference point is heaven. That is, since the tax-collector was unwilling to even lift up his eyes to heaven, wouldn’t heaven provide the most likely point of reference for his ‘standing far away’? In other words, could it be that the description of his ‘stance’ as being “far away” pertains to his perceived ‘distance’ from heaven—with heaven understood as a metonym for God? A look at some extra-biblical and LXX usage of both makrothen and histēmi will provide evidence supporting this proposition.

In one lexicon the verb histēmi is defined: “frequently merely a stronger form of εἶναι [einai], to be in a certain place or state”.34 In other words, in this particular definition, the word “stand” is almost equivalent to, though stronger than, “be”: He stands strongHe is strong. This is found in John 8:44, as the explanatory clause following the verb’s usage makes clear: he [the Devil] does not stand [ exist] in the truth, because there is no truth in him. The Devil stands in untruth. The Devil is untruthful.

More important is the accompanying sub-definition “with Adv[erb]”.35 That is, there are specific occurrences of this figurative meaning of the verb with an accompanying adverb—as in the construction of 18:13. Furthermore, in this combination the two can form an idiomatic expression. The second reference below (33.6.3) provides such an example. These are from Histories by historian Polybius (c. 208 BC–c. 118 BC). The verbs below are different tense-forms, but from the same root histēmi.36 Coincidentally, the first one (18.3.2) adverbially uses the adjective “unrighteous” as used in Luke 18:11.

18.3.2: ἀδίκως ἵστασθαι καὶ λίαν ἀγεννῶς
adikōs histasthai kai lian agennōs
unrighteously to stand and very low-born
stanced unrighteously and very ignobly
postured unrighteously and very ignobly

33.6.3: ὡς ἐμοὶ δοκεῖν, ὀρθῶς ἵσταντο
hōs emoi dokein, orthōs histanto
as to me it-seemed, straight they-were-standing
as it seemed to me, they stood uprightly
in my opinion, they were honest/upright [standing]

In somewhat similar fashion, Hellenistic Jewish philosopher Philo of Alexandria (c. 20 BC–c. 50 AD) used the verb figuratively and with the adjectival form of “straight” in a context regarding principles (Legum 3.32). The verb here is in the same form as Luke 18:13 (perfect tense-form):

γάρ τις τὸν ἑστῶτα καὶ ὑγιῆ καὶ ὀρθὸν διακόψῃ καὶ διέλῃ λόγον
gar tis ton hestōta kai hygiē kai orthon diakopsȩ̄ kai dielȩ̄ logon
for anyone the stands also whole and straight should-cut and should-divide message
for anyone that stands whole and straight should cut and divide message
for that message which stands wholesome and upright should anyone cut and divide
for should anyone cut and divide that message which stands wholesome and upright

This same form of “stand” is found in Luke 5:2, used in a semi-literal or quasi-figurative fashion: two boats standing in the lake. This illustrates the multivalence of this verb.37

Going back to Luke 18:13, the adverb makrothen comes from the adjective makros, which means long, far, distant. The adjectival form is used in Luke 15:13 and 19:12 (distant country/land). The adjectival form is also used in Josephus’ (37 AD –c. 100) Antiquities, in which the Jewish historian records Michal pleading for David’s safety, asking that God lengthen the night to give him extra time to escape Saul (6.216).

In Philo there are quite a few figurative usages of the adverb,38 the best example of which, for our purposes, is in The Special Laws, IV (Spec 4.218):

αἳ μακρόθεν τῶν ἐπ᾿ ἀνθρώποις πλεονεξιῶν τὴν λύσσαν ἀνείργουσι καὶ ἀνακόπτουσιν
hai makrothen tōn ep’ anthrōpois pleonexiōn tēn lyssan aneirgousi kai anakoptousin
which far-away the among men of-greed the fury constrains and restrains
which distantly constrains and restrains the fury of greediness among men
which remotely constrains and restrains the penchant for greediness inherent in humankind

Taking this in its context, the idea here is that observing these laws will “lengthen” the propensity for the covetousness inherent in humans. Below is the C. D. Yonge translation in larger context:

Ought we not, then, to feel an attachment to such commandments as these, which tend to restrain us from and to remove us to a great distance from the acts of covetousness, which are common among men, blunting the edge of the passion itself?39

The figurative meaning here is one of remoteness: the commandments make the likelihood of succumbing to covetousness something so far-removed, so distant, so remote.40 Such laws induce humans to stay far away from breaking them.41

It is a variation of this figurative meaning, I shall argue, that is the intention in this parable.  While the laws described in Philo are attractive to the extent that observing them restrains greed—the undesirable acts of coveting becoming therefore more remote occurrences—the tax collector’s perception of estrangement from God consequently made him feel relationally ‘remote’ from God. While the above investigation provides a solid basis, more direct evidence comes from the LXX.

Makrothen is found 37 times in the LXX. Most often its meaning in those contexts is literal, one of spatial distance—far away. However, there are a few instances of figurative usage relating to God. The first is perhaps quasi-figurative.

In Exodus 24:1–2 Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, as well as seventy elders of Israel, are instructed by the LORD to worship at a distance (makrothen), yet Moses is permitted to come near to the LORD. Thus, because Moses is closer relationally to the LORD, he is privileged to move closer spatially; whereas, the others were to remain “at a distance” spatially, since they did not enjoy the same level of relational closeness.

More important are the three occurrences of makrothen in the Psalms, two of which include the verb histēmi. In Psalm 37:12 LXX (38:11), the verb for ‘stand’ in this context, while connoting the idea of distance in a spatial sense, is not referring to physical, literal standing so much as a general attitude of a state of avoidance: Because of my affliction, my dearest friends and those closest to me will not come near and stand (estēsan), even my family members from far-away stand (apo makrothen estēsan).

Psalm 9:22 LXX (10:1) speaks of the LORD figuratively “’standing’ far away” from the psalmist:

ἵνα τί, Κύριε, ἀφέστηκας μακρόθεν
hina ti, Kyrie, aphestēkas makrothen
that why, O-LORD, You-stand-from far-away?
O LORD, Why is it that You stand far away?
Why, O LORD, do you stand at a distance?
Why, O LORD, are you distant?

The verb aphestēkas is a combination of the preposition apo, “from” and histēmi, “stand”. It carries the idea of withdrawal and the resulting stance of that withdrawal. In its context above, the verb does not mean stand in a literal, physical sense, nor does it mean that God was then in a state of existence far away spatially, as opposed to nearby. The psalmist is merely expressing his own feelings of relational distance in response to the LORD’s seeming aloofness.

Psalm 137:6 LXX (138:6) conveys a message very similar to that in the Parable of the Pharisee and the Tax-Collector. Importantly, it includes makrothen with the apparent meaning of relational rather than spatial distance, yet it also includes other lexical items in common with the Parable’s climax (hypsēlos/hypsēla,exalted”; tapeina, humble”):

ὅτι ὑψηλὸς Κύριος, καὶ τὰ ταπεινὰ ἐφορᾷ, καὶ τὰ ὑψηλὰ ἀπὸ μακρόθεν γινώσκει.
hoti hypsēlos Kyrios kai ta tapeina ephora̧, kai ta hypsēla apo makrothen ginōskei.
Because exalted LORD and the lowly He-observes, and the exalted from far-away He-knows
Because [the] LORD [is] exalted, He observes the humble, but the proud He knows from afar.
Though the LORD is exalted, He sees the lowly, but the haughty He recognizes from a distance.
Though exalted, yet the LORD watches the humble, but knows the self-exalted from afar.

Observe the play on words illustrated in the Greek. The adjective hypsēlos, “exalted” is used to describe LORD (Kyrios), while this same adjective is nominalized—made into a noun with the use of the article ta (“the”)—to refer to the self-exalted (ta hypsēla). The latter is to contrast with the exalted LORD and “the humble” (ta tapeina). In the final clause apo makrothen ginōskei, God knows the self-exalted from afar. The LORD sees everything, of course, though preferring to watch over (and implicitly ‘draw near’ to) the humble, while relating to those exalting themselves in a distant manner, as if from afar.42

Returning again to Luke 18:13, the tax-collector felt so far away from God he was unwilling to even lift his eyes to heaven. His stance, the way he was “distantly postured”, reflected his perceived relational distance from God (cf. Psalm 9:22 LXX [10:1], Exodus 24:1–2 above).43 When understood this way, we can envision that in the Parable of the Pharisee and the Tax-Collector Jesus may well have appropriated Psalm 137:6 LXX (138:6), flipping the lens from God’s perspective to the Pharisee’s (v. 11), then to the tax-collector’s (v. 13), and ultimately reverting back to God’s  (v. 14). In the Parable’s ironical climax, the tax-collector’s contrition was rewarded by God’s justification (implicitly ‘drawing near’); the Pharisee’s self-exaltation was dismissed by God’s ‘distancing’ (and ultimate humbling).

A working figurative rendering (functional equivalence) for makrothen hestōs, “having stood far away” in Luke 18:13 might be penitently postured: The tax-collector, being penitently postured, was unwilling to even lift his eyes to heaven. Or perhaps:

The tax-collector, having assumed a penitent posture
The tax-collector, in a state of penitence
The tax-collector, feeling (relationally) distant
The tax-collector, being distantly postured
The tax-collector, postured far-removedly          

The participle hestōs (in conjunction with the adverb makrothen) is functioning mostly adverbially (adverbial participle) and is interpreted here as causal, indicating the reason the tax-collector would not raise his eyes to heaven. Putting this interpretation into a clause, we might render it: The tax-collector, because he felt (relationally) distant, was unwilling to even lift his eyes to heaven.

The Pharisee’s Standing

Having established plentiful historical figurative uses of “stand” (histēmi), and, more importantly, its use in conjunction with “far away” (makrothen) expressing relational rather than spatial distance, we now turn to Luke 18:11. The issue here is how to translate pros heauton, “towards himself” in its context. The specific challenge is in translating pros, “towards”.

In dynamic contexts this preposition pros indicates movement towards something (see πρός here: Spatial Representation of Prepositions). These contexts involve verbs of motion: from one place towards or to another. In static contexts—those in which there is no spatial movement, as here—pros can refer to orientation toward something.

The most common use of this preposition in the NT generally is in reference to speech: he spoke to (pros) them. In fact, this is the use of pros in the parable’s preface (18:9): And He also spoke this parable to (pros) some...44

Yet there are quite a number of nuances for pros. It is used as an inscription to a number of NT epistles, e.g.: PROS GALATAS, To [the] Galatians. Here is another nuance, indicating proximity and/or relationship:

John 1:1: and the Word was with (pros) God.
2Cor 5:8: absent from the body, present with (pros) the Lord.
2Cor 6:14: what fellowship [has] light with (pros) darkness?

And here are two more:

Acts 24:16: clear conscience toward/before (pros) God
Eph 3:14: I bow my knees before (pros) the Father.

So, how should we interpret this preposition in the context of Luke 18:11?45 Two different commentaries assist, the first from over a century ago.

Alfred Plummer comments on statheis (σταθείς) in Luke 18:11 and then quotes Frenchman Henri Lasserre: “This perhaps indicates the conscious adopting of an attitude . . . debout et la tête haute (Lasserre)”.46 I translate/interpret Lasserre’s French as roughly “stood and with head high/elevated”. The portion after debout (“stood”) surely includes the PP pros heauton as part of his translation into French.  This might be construed “stood self-exaltedly” or “stood haughtily”.

While Plummer continues on to explain the context in a literal fashion,47 Lasserre above clearly views statheis pros heauton—or, at minimum, the PP—figuratively.

Charles Talbert’s comments regarding the Pharisee’s misplaced confidence and condescending attitude toward others provides additional aid (bold for emphasis):

The Pharisee’s posture is unmasked as idolatry . . . To judge is God’s prerogative (cf. 1 Cor. 4:5), not ours. Proper thanks to God for one’s lot in life never involves condescension toward others . . . Spiritual arrogance is presumption, assuming that one stands in God’s place, able to judge. It is this exaltation of oneself that God overturns.48

Note that Talbert’s use of “posture” here is not unlike how Polybius uses histēmi in 18.3.2 (see previous section).49 This plus Talbert’s other words bolded above well-describe the Pharisee in this context. Could this be what Jesus meant with his phrase statheis pros heauton here?

Below are two different nuances for pros in BDAG, followed by possible translations of statheis pros heauton for each:

orientation toward someone > of goal (striving) toward > for the purpose of, on behalf of50

In the context of Luke 18:11 this could be rendered “standing on behalf of himself” / “standing on his own behalf“/ “standing on his own”.

The next BDAG nuance is similar:

orientation toward someone > of relationship for > friendly to, toward, with, before51

In 18:11 this could be rendered “standing for himself” / “standing before himself”.52

On these possibilities, Romans 4:2 provides a sort of negative analogy here: For if Abraham was pronounced-righteous [edikaiōthē] by works, he has cause to boast—but not before [pros] God. Assuming our renderings above have merit, comparatively, the Pharisee was “standing for himself” or “standing on his own behalf”, confident of his own righteousness by virtue of his understanding that he’d faithfully followed the Law (and then some—v. 12).

Because the Pharisee presumed he fully adhered to the Law, his ‘stance’ was one of self-confidence, for he assumed his works placed him in close relationship with God. Plummer scathingly depicts his ‘prayer’:

There is no prayer, even in form; he asks God for nothing, being thoroughly satisfied with his present condition. And only in form is his utterance a thanksgiving; it is a self-congratulation. He glances at God, but contemplates himself. Indeed he almost pities God, who but for himself would be destitute of faithful servants.53

So his presumed ‘standing’ before God in Luke 18:11 was, in reality, a ‘standing’ before himself. And, according to our understanding—our alternative application of pros heauton here—this is how Jesus describes the Pharisee: standing before himself. In other words, as per the understanding here, Jesus is implicitly harshly criticizing the Pharisee via His description of his ‘stance’, i.e., his ‘prayer posture’.

With this construal in mind, we could adapt the message in Romans 4:2: For if the Pharisee was pronounced-righteous by works, he has cause to boast before/to himself (pros heauton)—but not before/to God (pros theon).

A working figurative rendering (functional equivalence) for statheis pros heauton, “stood toward himself”, might be oriented toward himself: The Pharisee, oriented toward himself, prayed these things. Or perhaps:

The Pharisee, standing for himself
The Pharisee, standing on his own behalf
The Pharisee, postured haughtily
The Pharisee, postured arrogantly

Thus, the participle statheis (in conjunction with pros heauton) is functioning mostly adverbially (adverbial participle) and is interpreted here as one of manner, indicating the attitude in which the Pharisee prayed.54

Standing Attitudes

Assuming the analysis above, the Pharisee is part of the group identified in the preface (18:9). As such, he was already convinced of his own righteousness. Due to this, he self-confidently and arrogantly ‘stood before himself’ in his ‘prayer’.

In contrast, the tax-collector knew he did not measure up to God’s standards. So, feeling relationally remote from God, in penitence, he adopted a lowly posture, likely with eyes downcast, unwilling to raise them to heaven. The tax-collector ‘stood far away’ from heaven, i.e., God.

Interpreting this parable through the lens of Psalm 137:6 LXX (138:6), the preposition pros (“toward”) in 18:11 should be understood as in juxtaposition with apo (“from”) in the Psalm. The Pharisee “stood toward himself” (pros heauton), yet God knew him only from afar (apo makrothen [see Spatial Representation of Prepositions referenced above]). The Pharisee stood on his own behalf (pros heauton), not before God (pros theon—Romans 4:2). In contrast, the tax-collector, recognizing his sinful condition, stood “distantly” from God (Psalm 9:22 LXX [10:1]), yet was noticed by God for his lowly stance (Psalm 137:6 LXX [138:6]).

Two men came to the Temple, but only one went home justified. The Pharisee’s prayer was self-centered, the tax-collector’s God-centered. In his overly-confident self-righteousness the Pharisee presumed he was already justified. In contrast, the tax-collector presumed God’s judgment was already upon him. Yet the tax-collector was made righteous because of his humility (the one humbling himself shall be exalted), while the Pharisee went home unjustified owing to his self-exaltation (for everyone who exalts himself shall be humbled).

Below is my revised translation of this parable. It is a mix of formal equivalence (word-for-word, “literal”) and dynamic or functional equivalence (sense-for-sense):

9 And then Jesus spoke this parable to those having been persuaded in themselves that they are righteous while despising all the rest:
10 “Two men went up to the Temple—one a Pharisee, the other a tax-collector. 11 The Pharisee, standing on his own behalf, began praying thus: ‘O God, I thank you that I am not like the rest of humanity: thieves, unrighteous, adulterers—or even like this tax-collector. 12 I fast twice a week, and I give ten percent of all I acquire.’
13 “But the tax-collector, penitently postured, was unwilling to even lift his eyes to heaven, but began beating his chest, pleading, ‘O God, show undeserved favor to me, the sinner!’
14 “I tell you, this man, rather than the other, came down to his home deemed righteous; for everyone who exalts himself shall be humbled, but the one humbling himself shall be exalted.”

If the analysis here is accepted, it’s not where the two stood spatially, but how each stood. And this prompts the question: How do I stand? How do you stand?

______________________________

1 Any such confidence may well be misplaced. Errors could be contained herein due to my lack of formal education in New Testament (NT) Greek. I welcome any corrections and comments. And I must admit to some apprehension in arriving at an exegetical conclusion previously not found—to my knowledge.

2 A textual variant involving word order complicates translation. The Critical Text (CT)—the Greek text from which modern versions are translated—is statheis pros heauton tauta prosēucheto (“stood toward himself these things prayed”), while the variant reads statheis tauta pros heauton prosēucheto (“stood these things toward himself prayed”). As a result, some translations may be influenced by a text-critical position for one over the other. Here we assume the CT (which mirrors the Textus Receptus). See note 3 below.

3 The CT (see note 2 above) syntactically allows for placing the PP either after the participle “stood” (“stood toward himself”) or after the main verb “prayed” (“prayed toward himself”) in translation. But the variant weighs against placing the PP after “stood”, and this variant may have arisen for that very reason. Copyists may have desired to disambiguate the text by altering it (thinking they were correcting it?). A few manuscripts even lack pros heauton entirely. For a fuller explanation, see Roger L. Omanson, A Textual Guide to the Greek New Testament: An Adaptation of Bruce M. Metzger’s Textual Commentary for the Needs of Translators (Stuttgart, Germany: Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft [German Bible Society], 2006), p 142.

4 Such a (semi-)figurative rendering seems to require the v. 11 PP accompany “stand” rather than prayed/ing, for otherwise ἵστημι (histēmi) stands alone and is interpreted literally as either attendant circumstances or temporal (“stood and [then] prayed”)—see, e.g., Alan J. Thompson Luke, EGGNT (Nashville, TN: B&H Academic, 2016), p 281.

5 And this was discovered only very recently. In working drafts prior to the past few weeks, none had been found. These commentaries will be implicitly identified further below.

6 See “ἵστημι/ἱστα̒νω”, Frederick W. Danker, The Concise Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (Chicago, IL: University of Chicago Press, 2009), p 178.1.c. (= put [before]). Danker calls this “a highly multivalent word”.

7 As an aside, see Bill Mounce’s important distinction between functional aka dynamic equivalence and “natural language” translations: Functional (or Dynamic) Equivalence and Natural Language.

8 See “ἵστημι”, W. Bauer, F. W. Danker, W. F. Arndt, and F. W. Gingrich, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, 3rd ed. (Chicago, IL: Chicago, 2000), p 483.C.5. Hereafter as BDAG. Cf. Acts 25:10, in which the same form of the verb as that in Luke 18:13 (perfect active participle) is used, though in a periphrastic construction, which is arguably figurative: “Before Caesar’s tribune I am standing.”

9 Joseph A. Fitzmyer, The Gospel According to Luke X-XXIV, The Anchor Yale Bible; Accordance electronic ed. (New Haven: Yale University Press, 1974), p 1184

10 Fitzmyer, Luke X-XXIV, pp 1186, 1188. I. Howard Marshall (The Gospel of Luke: A Commentary on the Greek Text, NIGTC; Accordance Electronic ed./OakTree Software, Inc. Version 2.7 [Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 1978]) goes even further: “By contrast . . . the tax-collector stands at a distance, possibly in the outer court of the temple” (p 680).

11 I use ‘prayer’ (in single quotes) here to indicate its self-congratulatory and judgmental tone, offering no real thanksgiving. Bock (Darrell L. Bock, Luke: 9:51–24:53, BECNT [Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Academic, 1996], p 1463) well-captures my thoughts: “In effect his prayer is, ‘I thank you God that I am such a great guy!’”

12 This would be in concert with the usual near/far distinction (whether spatial or anaphoric/kataphoric) as in the juxtaposed “this”/”that” in 18:14. See Steven E. Runge, Discourse Grammar of the Greek New Testament: A Practical Introduction for Teaching and Exegesis (Peabody, MA: Hendrickson, 2010), pp 365–371. Runge mentions this usual near/far distinction en route to explaining what he perceives as another discourse function of this pair (thematic/athematic). Curiously, though, the author overlooks “this” with respect to the Pharisee’s mention of the tax-collector in 18:11, while noting all other occurrences of “this”, ου͒τος (houtos) and “that”, έκει̑νος (ekeinos) in this pericope (p 370).  Cf. note 30 below.

13 As I was finalizing this article, I reviewed some material and came across the following from J. P. Louw, “Reading a Text as Discourse” in David Alan Black, ed. Linguistics and New Testament Interpretation: Essays on Discourse Analysis (Nashville, TN: Broadman, 1992): “[It] is not so much a matter of the extent of understanding but rather of being able to justify what is being understood, and especially to be sensitive to over-interpretation” (p 19, emphasis in orig.). And this was after I’d already chosen and was still pondering this section’s subtitle.

14 For cohesion and coherence, see David Alan Black, Linguistics for Students of New Testament Greek: A Survey of Basic Concepts and Applications, 2nd ed. (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker, 1995), pp 171, 196.

15 As just one example, many English versions translate adikoi in v 11 other than “unrighteous”—e.g. “unjust” (ESV, NASB, KJV, ASV, D-R)—which will likely cause some readers to miss its lexical connection to dikaioi, “righteous” in v 9. Additionally, most English versions translate dedikaiōmenos in v 14 “justified”, which will likely cause readers to miss its lexical connection to both dikaioi in v 9 and adikoi in v 11.

16 This is as opposed to using a particular word then later using a synonym for this same word. For more finely defined terminology and more expansive applications for an enquiry such as the one embarked on here see Black, Linguistics for Students of NT Greek; for what I mean by “lexical items”, see esp. pp 58, 97, 179–181.

17 I’m using “lexical frame” differently than others might. Here I refer to the repetition of individual words—lexical items—which thereby provide internal connectivity, with “frame” constituting the text between and including the first and last uses of these words, plus their associated immediate contexts.

18 On this connection see John Nolland, Luke: 9:21–18:34, WBC (Dallas, TX: Word Books, 1993), p 875.

19 See Nolland, Luke: 9:21–18:34, “δίκαιοι, ‘righteous’ [ED: in v 9], is probably based on the use of its opposite, ά̓diκοι, ‘unjust,’ in v 11” (p 875).

20 Mikeal C. Parsons (Luke: Storyteller, Interpreter, Evangelist [Peabody, MA: Hendrickson, 2007]) notes the significance of the use of “righteous” here in this parable and in The Parable of the Good Samaritan: “The contrast between the negatively portrayed religious leaders and the unexpected heroes highlights the theme of the reversal of expectations. Verbally the [two] parables are linked by the important theological theme of justification (δικαιόω, dikaioō) . . . Since δικαιόω (dikaioō) occurs in no other parable in Luke’s travel narrative, this verbal link is noteworthy” (p 119).

21 The parable proper introduces the Pharisee in concert with the tax-collector via α͗νθρωποι δύο, anthrōpoi duo (“two men”) in v. 10. Yet the Pharisee appears to be ‘pre-introduced’ in the preface (v. 9; cf. Bock, Luke: 9:51–24:53, p 1461). By this I mean the following. The phrase α͗νθρωπός τις, anthrōpos tis (“a certain man”) serves to introduce a new character in Lucan narrative (10:30, 14:16, e.g.), but sometimes it is expanded, introducing other participants in the scene by association (as in 15:11: “a certain man had two sons”)—see Stephen H. Levinsohn, Discourse Features of New Testament Greek: A Coursebook on the Information Structure of New Testament Greek, 2nd ed. (Dallas, TX: SIL International, 2000), pp 134–135. Extrapolating from this, it seems plausible τινας τοὺς πεποιθότας . . . καὶ ἐξουθενοῦντας, tinas tous pepoithotas . . . kai exouthenountas (“a certain group having-been-persuaded . . . and despising”) functions similarly here. That is, the Pharisee in 18:11 appears implicitly ‘pre-introduced’ as part of this “certain group” in 18:9 by association via the description “having-been-persuaded . . . and despising”. The lexical connections noted in the main text here reinforce this association. More on this below.

22 Cf. Luke 14:11.

23 And it seems probable this first “himself” (ε͗ατου̑, heautou) in v. 14 implicitly refers to members of the unnamed group, given the presence of every (πα̑ς, pas) before the article (ο͑, ho)—everyone.

24 And cf. notes 21 and 23.

25 See note 23.

26 If we accept Stanley Porter’s position that the perfect is the most heavily marked tense-form (Stanley E. Porter, Verbal Aspect in the Greek of the New Testament, with Reference to Tense and Mood, [New York: Peter Lang, 1993 {1989}], pp 245-251), then we would interpret the perfect participles in vv. 9, 13 and 14 as providing emphasis. This would mean special focus should be upon the unnamed group’s ‘state of persuasion’ (that they were righteous), the tax-collector’s ‘state of standing’ in 13, and, climactically, the tax-collector’s ‘state of being pronounced righteous’ in 14.

27 Cf. note 21 and the intervening main text. Assuming my rationale regarding connection holds, this may soften Nolland’s reluctance to perceive parallelism between v. 11 and v. 13, which he views as “uncertain because of the use of the perfect active participle there [ED: in v. 13] and the aorist passive here” (p 876). To possibly further allay Nolland’s concerns, I interpret the v. 11 participle middle instead of passive—see Martin M. Culy, Mikeal C. Parsons & Joshua J. Stigall, Luke: A Handbook on the Greek Text, BHGNT (Waco, TX: Baylor UP, 2010), p 568; cf. xi–xiii. It seems to me the middle works better in context, especially with the reflexive pronoun in the accompanying PP.

28 And I find further evidence to support interpreting the aorist in v. 11 as describing the Pharisee as part of the group. I deem the participle τοὺς πεποιθότας (tous pepoithotas) in v. 9 as attributive (to τινας, tinas)—see Thompson, Luke, EGGNT, p 281. This further supports my assumptions in the text, which I shall rephrase and expound upon: I deem the two participles are near-parallel (τοὺς πεποιθότας ~ σταθεὶς), in keeping with my position of syntactical near-parallelism. Thus, I infer that the Pharisee is implicitly included in the “some” (τινας, tinas) of v. 9 (again, cf. note 21 above). This means, according to my schema here, the Pharisee “standing toward himself” shares in character with those “having-been-persuaded in themselves that they are righteous” (v. 9).

29 I use this term in a general sense to describe the work done in this section, though this same term is applied to many different approaches in analyzing sections or the whole of ancient and modern works. My approach is similar, though smaller in scope, to that found in Black, Linguistics for Students of NT Greek, pp 170–196. One recent volume exemplifying the myriad approaches to discourse analysis is Todd A. Scacewater, ed. Discourse Analysis of the New Testament Writings (Dallas, TX: Fontes Press, 2020). For additional background, cf. Peter Cotterell & Max Turner, Linguistics and Biblical Interpretation (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press, 1989); Black, ed. Linguistics and NT Interpretation; Levinsohn, Discourse Features of NT; Runge, Discourse Grammar of the Greek NT.

30 The juxtaposition of “this” with “that” in v 14 is noted by Bock (Luke: 9:51–24:53): “In another contrast, Jesus says that ‘this’ (ου͒τος, houtos) tax collector was justified, while ‘that’ (έκει̑νον, ekeinon) Pharisee was not” (p 1465). Note also that in his ‘prayer’ the Pharisee derisively referred to “this (ου͒τος, houtos) tax collector” in what could be considered yet another ‘reversal of expectations’ in light of v 14 (see Parsons at note 20). And these provide yet another intraconnecting lexical link.

31 See Stanley E. Porter Idioms of the Greek New Testament, 2nd ed. (Sheffield, England: JSOT Press, 1994), p 181. The participle contains both verbal and adjectival qualities, context determining its function.

32 H. E. Dana & Julius R. Mantey, A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament (New York: MacMillan, 1927), p 226 . And the cautionary advice of Porter (Idioms) should be kept in mind: “In some instances it may simply be better not to specify the relation between the participle and the other elements of the construction [ED: whether causal, instrumental-manner, instrumental-means, etc.], since the context does not give specific indicators” (p 191). In other words, the exegete should be careful to avoid interpreting when translating, if the text is ambiguous to the point that other translational/interpretive possibilities exist.

33 Compare to οἳ ἔστησαν πόρρωθεν, hoi estēsan porrōthen in Luke 17:12.

34 See LSJ here (under B): https://lsj.gr/wiki/ἵστημι. Bracketed transliteration added.

35 Ibid.

36 These are both taken from the LSJ under B (final references).  The first (18.3.2) is an infinitive, the second (33.6.3) a finite verb. Though Polybius’ writings predate Luke’s Gospel by about two centuries, I think they are relevant here.

37 See Danker’s comment at note 6.

38 Somn 2.142: aposkopein makrothen hoi chrēsmoi; Spec 4.104: hōste makrothen aneirxai boulomenos; Virt 137: hyper tou makrothen epischein. In one instance, Polybius uses the word figuratively with reference to time in Histories 1.65.7: προορᾶσθαι καὶ φυλάττεσθαι μακρόθεν, proorasthai kai phulattesthai makrothen, foresee and keep guard from-afarforesee and keep guard well in advance/well beforehand.

39 Public domain; see here: http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/yonge/book30.html

40 Comparatively, a more literal application of this nuance would be, e.g., an employee working off-site—the employee working remotely, at a distance from the main work site.

41 It seems the meaning of remote in such contexts as remote possibility evolved from the general concept of spatial distance, with the idea that as distance increases an object becomes smaller to the eventual point of being minute, and then this conception was further applied to a figurative sense of the word: remote > faint > slight > unlikely.

42 Of course, none of this is intended to reduce Deity to creature, as if the LORD were three-dimensional and/or not omnipresent.  This is merely to capture the force of the psalm’s anthropomorphic depictions.

43 Matthew Henry (Matthew Henry’s Commentary on the Whole Bible: Volume 5: Matthew to John, New Modern Ed. Unabridged [Peabody, MA: Hendrickson, 1991]) comes somewhat close to the proposition here. After first making the assumption the tax-collector literally stood ‘far off’ with respect to the Pharisee and the Court of the Priests, he makes the following observation: “[T]he publican kept at a distance under a sense of his unworthiness to draw near to God . . . Hereby he owned that God might justly behold him afar off, and send him into a state of eternal distance from him, and that it was a great favour that God was pleased to admit him thus nigh” (p V.626; italics in original, bold added).

44 Some might argue that it should be understood “against”: And He spoke [this parable] against some. However, to is the normal way Luke introduces parables (cf. 1:13, e.g.), which is “to indicate the addressees” (Thompson, Luke, EGGNT, p 281). See BDAG, p 874.3.d.α.

45 It is likely not “by himself”, as Alfred Plummer notes (The Gospel According to St. Luke, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary {International Critical Commentary}; ed. Samuel Rolles Driver, Alfred Plummer, and Charles A. Briggs; 5th ed. [Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1922], Accordance edition/OakTree Software, Inc., Version 1.4): “’Standing by himself’ would be καθ’ ε͗αυτόν [kath’ heauton]” (para 9310). Cf. Culy, Parsons & Stigall, Luke, BHGNT, p 568.

46 Plummer, According to St. Luke, para 9309. I would be remiss if I did not include the following remarks from Plummer’s Introduction/bibliography: “Lasserre, Henri. Les Saints Évangiles, 1886, 1887. A French translation of the Gospels with brief notes. Uncritical, but interesting. It received the imprimatur of the Archbishop of Paris and the praise of Leo XIII, ran through twenty-five editions in two years, and then through the influence of the Jesuits was suppressed” (para 6680).

47 Plummer, According to St. Luke, para 9309. The author takes pros heauton with prosēucheto. In all fairness to Plummer, I should note that his comments here make good sense of his exegetical decision to place the PP with prosēucheto (which would be “prayed to himself”): “The character of his prayer shows why he would not utter it so that others could hear” (para 9309). In the final analysis, it may well be that the syntactical ambiguity (see notes 2 and 3) is quite purposeful and such that the hearer/reader would be forced to ponder both interpretations.

48 Charles H. Talbert, Reading Luke: A Literary and Theological Commentary on the Third Gospel (New York: Crossroad, 1982), p 171 (emphasis added).

49 This is not to state this is what Talbert is conveying for the meaning of statheis in Luke 18:11, just that his overall conception here does not contradict such a figurative rendering.

50 BDAG, p 874.3.c.α.

51 BDAG, p 874.3.d.β.

52 One can almost picture the Pharisee standing before a mirror, thinking to himself: Mirror, mirror on the wall, who’s the most righteous one of all?

53 Plummer, According to St. Luke, para 9311 (bold added). Some of these late 19th century works have quite a way with words! To be clear (and fair), Plummer’s depiction of the Pharisee’s prayer must be viewed in context with note 47 above; however, his words here well support our alternate interpretation. For a fairly exhaustive investigation into the myriad ways to interpret the Pharisee’s actions—both positively and negatively—see Nolland, Luke: 9:21–18:34, pp 876–878. I highly recommend Nolland here.

54 See Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1996), pp 627–628.

What Have I With You?

I get a kick out of idioms! Idiomatic expressions spice up speech and literature. They can add levity to mundane subjects or technical works.

Here are a few idioms to make you hunger for more:

Food for thought
A piece of cake
Pie in the sky
Egg on my face
Bread and butter
Out to lunch

Dolphy_Out_To_Lunch

Yet idiomatic expressions can be a challenge to translate from one language to another—especially if it’s a language no longer in use, such as Koine (New Testament) Greek. And such a challenge presents itself in John 2:4.

Technically Speaking

Chapter two of John’s Gospel opens with the wedding in Cana (John 2:1–2). Upon learning the hosts had run out of wine for their guests, Mary informed Jesus (2:3). In (transliterated) Greek He responded (2:4), Ti emoi kai soi? This translates most literally as, What to me and to you?

This idiomatic expression in John 2:4 recently featured in a segment of Daily Dose of Greek. See the corresponding YouTube video here:

Note the very different English translations of this idiom. Few are literal (formally equivalent), most are functionally equivalent (dynamic).

Though Dr. Plummer—following others—asserts this originates as a Semitic (Hebrew) idiom,1 this idiom is found in Classical (pre-Koine) Greek.2 In H. W. Smyth’s Greek Grammar, the Classicist adds the verb ‘to be’ (estin) and renders this expression functionally as, What have I to do with thee? Taking Smyth’s added (implied) Greek verb, we might render this more literally as, What is [it] to me and you?

Following are Smyth’s complete thoughts on this matter (§ 1479), with transliteration added in brackets:

Here belong the phrases (1) τί (ἐστιν) ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί [ti (estin) emoi kai soi]; what have I to do with thee?; cp. τί τῷ νόμῳ καὶ τῇ βασάνῳ [ti tō̗ nomō̗ kai tē̗ basanō̗]; what have the law and torture in common? D. 29.36. (2) τί ταῦτ᾽ ἐμοί [ti taut’ emoi]; what have I to do with this? D. 54.17. (3) τί ἐμοὶ πλέον [ti emoi pleon]; what gain have I? X. C. 5.5.34.

It seems to me that the comparison (“cp.”) in (1) is instructive. Note the parallelism. It begins with the same interrogative pronoun ti and includes a kai (“and”) between the dative “law” and “torture”. Moreover, (2) is quite helpful: ti taut’ emoi is most literally What this to me? If we add the presumably implied ‘to be’ we would get What is this to me? Assuming my rationale is correct, we might think that the idiomatic expression is something like What (is) me and you? or What (is) me to you? This, then, would be understood as conveying something akin to What do I share with you? or What do I have in common with you?

Interestingly, in a few Biblical passages unclean spirits used this same idiom in response to Jesus. The NET Bible, for example, renders Mark 5:7 as follows: Leave me alone, Jesus, Son of the Most High God! I implore you by God–do not torment me!” The NET is certainly using dynamic equivalence, but I might challenge the rendering here. Elsewhere, I’ve translated this: What am I to You, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? I implore you by God: Don’t torment me!”

The NET Bible notes for Mark 5:7 explain: Hostility between Jesus and the demons is certainly to be understood in this context, hence the translation: “Leave me alone….” Yet I’m not so sure the unclean spirits were openly hostile to Jesus here. They knew who He is and they understood the power He had over them; so, I’d think they would be a bit more cautious in their interactions with Him.

Conclusion

The title of this article should be understood as a possible dynamic rendering of this idiomatic phrase (‘What Have I With You?’), as well as a question as to whether this is a valid translation of this idiom (Is it ‘What have I with you’?)

So how should we translate this idiom in John 2:4?

Beats me!

__________________________

1 Follow the note in the online NET Bible translation here (footnote 8).

2 See Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1996), pp 150–151; Rodney J. Decker, Mark 1–8: A Handbook on the Greek Text, BHGNT (Waco, TX: Baylor University Press, 2014): “This is not a Hebraism, though Hebrew does have a similar idiom (. . . see also BDAG, 275, s.v. έγώ. col. 2 . . . )” [p 27].

Art Intimates Scripture: In the Winter of ‘The American Four Seasons’

24:36 “Now, concerning that day and hour, no one knows—not even the angels of heaven, and not even the Son—except the Father alone. 37 For as the days of Noah, so will be the Parousia of the Son of Man. 38 For as in those days before the Flood, they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day when Noah entered the ark 39 —and they did not realize until the Flood came and carried them all away. So will be the Parousia of the Son of Man. 40 At that time, two men will be in the field: one is received and one is disregarded. 41 Two women will be grinding in the mill: one is received and one is disregarded.”1

What follows below is strictly my own interpretation and application of Philip Glass’ Violin Concerto No. 2, aka The American Four Seasons. But the composer explicitly welcomes such individual interpretation:

[Robert McDuffie’s] interpretation, though similar to my own, proved to be also somewhat different. This struck me as an opportunity, then, for the listener to make his/her own interpretation. Therefore, there will be no instructions for the audience, no clues as to where Spring, Summer, Winter, and Fall might appear in the new concerto—an interesting, though not worrisome, problem for the listener. After all, if Bobby and I are not in complete agreement, an independent interpretation can be tolerated and even welcomed.2

A bit of background information is necessary to explain my interpretation/application. The concerto is composed in eight parts, with a prologue preceding the first movement, and each succeeding movement preceded by a song:

Prologue
Movement I
Song No. 1
Movement II
Song No. 2
Movement III
Song No. 3
Movement IV

The Prologue and songs are short solo violin pieces. In contrast, the movements incorporate the ensemble. The Prologue, then, serves as a prelude to Movement I, while the songs function as interludes bridging each Movement.

In view of its overall structure, each Movement correlates to one of the four seasons. It seems best to conceive these seasons as proceeding in order beginning with spring, then summer, fall, and winter. Thus far, this is fairly straightforward.

Digressing just a bit while providing additional context, I must say I really like this piece. I think it is fairly accessible, even to the Classical music hesitant (or Classical music “purist” put off by ‘minimalism’). Movement I may be the most ear-pleasing. The slower and more melancholic Movement II features some achingly beautiful moments, after which it segues into its waltz section—my favorite part of the concerto. The up-tempo Movement III lifts the mood of II, and its quasi-harpsichord accompaniment and occasional flourishes—played on a synthesizer—merges the past with the contemporary. Movement IV is the fastest and musically the ‘busiest’ of them all:

I interpret these movements as indicating segments of time in chronology—as opposed to literal seasons of a calendar year. As such, Movement I correlates to the birth of the USA and each successive Movement relates to subsequent time periods. Movement IV, then, represents the time period we are currently living within. The American Empire is in the winter of its existence.

The winter of America seems to be moving exponentially faster than previous seasons. Notice how Movement IV’s tempo quickens sharply, almost chaotically, just before it abruptly ends. I interpret that as analogous to the USA’s forthcoming demise.

Interestingly, Movement IV is seven minutes long. Just before its halfway mark it slows a bit, briefly pausing altogether before beginning anew. It returns to the original tempo, yet as it begins to decrease instrumentation, it appears to slow a bit. Following that, the full ensemble reenters. The violin plays faster arpeggios (the overall tempo remaining the same), until the tempo rapidly increases and the violinist speeds his bowing to match. Then the end.

Though the concerto was written specifically for Robert McDuffie (and it was premiered with this violinist featured), the above was performed by violinist Gidon Kremer and his Kremerata Baltica ensemble. In the liner notes for this release, new seasons, Kremer remarks:

The subject of seasons in music has always interested me and has become the focus of a number of my recordings and concert programs . . . Why the seasons? Why “new seasons”? As an artist I’ve always tried to keep in step with the times. Time and seasons are virtually synonymous.3

In the Greek of the New Testament, “time” is chronos, while “season” (or “appointed/proper time”) is kairos. The latter term, kairos (as opposed to chronos), is used when referring to Jesus’ Parousia—His return to usher in the end of all things. [See Not One Parousia, But Two.] For example, kairos is found twice in the Parable of the Tenants (21:34 and 21:41). And the term is found just after the section of Scripture beginning this post:

24:42 “Therefore, be alert, because you do not know on what day our Lord is coming. 43 But be certain of this: If the owner of the house had known which segment of nighttime the thief was coming, he would have been alert and would not have let his house be broken into. 44 Considering this, you must also be ready, because the Son of Man is coming at an hour you do not expect.

45 “Who then is the faithful and wise servant whom his master has put in charge of his household—the one giving them nourishment in season [kairos]? 46 Blessed is that servant whom his master finds so doing when he comes! 47 Amen I say to you that he will put him in charge of all his possessions. 48 But if that wicked servant should say in his heart, ‘My lord delays’ . . .”

How long till the closing of this American winter season I will not venture or dare to predict.  Yet I do suspect the end of the empire will come near the end of it all, though, again, I will not hazard a guess as to timing (concerning that day and hour, no one knows . . . except the Father alone). But I want to be ready, no matter the case.

Only time will tell in this season. Sadly, most will continue “eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage”, oblivious to the coming wrath.

Let’s endeavor to keep each other alert.

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1 After exegeting this passage, I consulted a few commentaries, especially regarding vv. 40 and 41. Some attempt to read too much into the context, construing 39’s ēren (“carried away” [some translate “taken away”, neglecting other nuances in the term]) as parallel to paralambanetai (“is received” [“is taken”, by many]) in 40 and 41, thereby concluding both refer to judgment. But this is clearly incorrect. 24:31 illustrates that the Son of Man sends His angels to “gather His elect” at His Parousia. This ‘gathering’ is what is referred to in paralambanetai in both 40 and 41. This is why I contrast “received” with “disregarded” in 40 and 41. One is “received” as part of the elect, the other is “disregarded” and s/he will be among those who will mourn (24:30). One is received as a child of God, the other is disregarded just as s/he disregarded the Son of Man. Donald A. Hagner (Matthew 14–28, WBC [Dallas, TX: Word Books, 1995]) is a fount of clarity here (24:40–41): “Presumably, those who are “taken” [ED: or “received”] are among the elect whom the angels of the Son of Man are to gather at his coming (v 31), while those who are left await the prospect of judgment. The application of these verses is made clear in the exhortation that follows” (p 720).

2 Taken from “NOTES” tab here: Philip Glass recordings: Violin Concerto No. 2 – The American Four Seasons 2010.

3 Liner notes to Gidon Kremer | Kremerata Baltica, new seasons (Glass, Pärt, Kancheli, Umebayashi), 00289 479 4817, © 2015 Deutsche Grammophon, GmbH, Berlin.

One Composer’s Conception of Time

“I saw a mighty angel descending from heaven, clad in a cloud, having a rainbow upon his head. His face was like the sun, his feet like pillars of fire. He placed his right foot on the sea, his left foot on the land; and, supporting himself on the sea and the land, he raised his hand heavenward and swore by the One Who lives forever and ever, saying: ‘There shall be no more time, but in the day of the trumpet of the seventh angel the mystery of God shall be consummated.’”

– Apocalypse of St. John, 10:1–2, 5–71

So begins Olivier Messiaen’s preface to his Quartet for the End of Time (Quatuor pour las Fin du Temps). We might call it the prologue or the prelude to his preface, for this excerpt from Revelation (aka Apocalypse of Jesus Christ) provides the sole inspiration for the entire piece.

The quartet here is unusual in that it is not the typical string quartet (two violins, viola, and cello), instead consisting of piano, violin, cello, and clarinet. Messiaen finished composing this chamber music work while imprisoned during World War II. A sympathetic guard provided the needed materials for the captive composer. Quartet for the End of Time premiered in Stalag VIII-A in Görlitz, Germany (modern day Zgorzelec, Poland).

In his preface he describes how the composition’s “musical language” evokes time, timelessness, and eternity:

Certain modes, realizing melodically and harmonically a kind of tonal ubiquity, draw the listener into a sense of the eternity of space or infinity. Particular rhythms existing outside the measure contribute importantly toward the banishment of temporalities. (All this remains mere striving and stammering if one ponders upon the overwhelming grandeur of the subject!)2

By “[p]articular rhythms existing outside the measure” the composer means irregular rhythms; in some sections the number of beats per bar (measure) varies. In the first movement, for example, one instrument is assigned notes/chords to be played at specific intervals, while another is given different notes to be played at different intervals.3 Such intermixing represents “the banishment of temporalities”.4 These musical effects express time nearing its end, after which it will segue into eternity, according to the composer.

The composition consists of eight movements, two of which center on Christ. The first of these, the much-lauded fifth movement, is titled “Praise to the Eternity of Jesus”. The composer explains:

Jesus is here considered as one with the Word [Logos]. A long phrase, infinitely slow, by the cello magnifies with love and reverence on the eternality of the powerful and gentle Word, “whose years will never cease.” Majestically, the melody unfolds at a sort of distance, both tender and supreme: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”

As I understand the composer, he appears to recognize that the earthly Jesus (the Word become flesh) preexisted as the Word. That is, there is continuity in the ‘Person’ of “the Word” and the Person of Jesus Christ. At the same time, then, he seems to correctly recognize that Jesus is coextensive with the Word only at the point of the Incarnation. Before that point in time the Word was not with flesh, and the Word was simply “the Word”.

Thus, while the Word eternally exists, Jesus has a beginning in time—at the instant of Incarnation, at the Conception of the Virginal Birth. In other words, though the Word exists eternally, the Word began a new mode of existence at the Incarnation—as Jesus of Nazareth, Jesus the Christ—which did not alter His eternality. Stated another way, the Word has unbounded eternality; comparatively, Jesus Christ has bounded eternality—bounded at the moment of the Virginal Conception, when the Word took human nature unto Himself (see An Eternal Christological Conundrum).

The second movement exalting Jesus Christ is the final (eighth) one: “Praise to the Immortality of Jesus.”

Expansive violin solo as counterpart to the cello solo of the fifth movement. Why this second eulogy? It addresses itself more specifically to the second aspect of Jesus—to Jesus the man, to the Word made flesh, resurrected immortal in order to share His life with us. It is total love. Its slow ascent towards the highest pitch is the ascension of man towards his God, of the child of God towards his Father, of the divinized creature towards paradise.

In keeping with his Roman Catholic faith, it seems likely the composer has in mind Athanasius, whose words were revised a bit to become the pithy aphorism “God became man so that man could become God”. That Messiaen understood this not as a full-on capital ‘D’ Deification seems evident in the last sentence above, especially the French créature divinisée. This retains the Creator-creature distinction, for a creature cannot truly become “Divinized”—capital ‘D’. The created cannot become just like the Creator. That would be oxymoronic. We are ‘partakers of the Divine nature’ (2Peter 1:4), not wholly Deity, God.5

Coming full circle, one last aspect of Messiaen’s preface commands our attention: his translation/interpretation of time in the prologue/prelude. A quick search of various English translations finds quite a variety in Revelation 10:6. Of this, the composer states:

“There are people who understand [the Biblical passage as] ‘there will be no more delay.’ That’s not it. [Instead it is] ‘there will be no more Time’ with a capital ‘T’; that is to say, there will be no more space, there will be no more time. One leaves the human dimension with cycles and destiny to rejoin eternity. So, I finally wrote this quartet dedicating it to this angel who declared the end of Time.”6

His is an interesting interpretation. As for the translation, Messiaen is technically correct. Let’s look at the Greek (transliterated):

Hoti chronos ouketi estai
That time no-longer will-be
That time will be no longer
That time will no longer be
That there will be time no longer
That there will be no more time

The first Greek word, hoti, can be understood as “that”, followed by a statement, in narrative form, of what someone had said. Or it can be construed as the beginning of a quotation, as Messiaen construes it, along with a few English translations. Messiaen goes a bit further, though, by prefacing this statement by the angel with “saying” (French: disant), which is not in the Greek. The composer also capitalizes “Time” (French: Temps).

Those versions that render this either as a quotation of the angel as “There will be no more delay” or the narrator’s reporting of what the angel had said as that there will be no more delay are making interpretive decisions based on the larger context. It is beyond the scope of this blog post to go into more detail, but the reader is free to make any comment on this.

The composer follows the words accompanying movement VIII—and thus concludes his preface—with the same words he had used parenthetically earlier in the preface, this time without the parentheses: All this remains mere striving and stammering if one ponders upon the overwhelming grandeur of the subject!

In sum, Messiaen offers an intriguing take on the Revelation 10 passage, which then functions as a basis for his unique conception of time musically, as realized in his chamber music piece Quatuor pour las Fin du Temps (Quartet for the End of Time). That this piece was conceived and completed while a WWII captive makes it perhaps all the more intriguing.

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1 As translated from Olivier Messiaen’s French, with the assistance of various online helps.

2 Again, as translated from Messiaen’s French, though comparing with the English translation in the CD  liner notes of RCA Victor Gold Seal (reissue of original 1976 RCA Red Seal), MESSIAEN Quatuor pour la Fin de Temps, Tashi (Peter Serkin, Ida Kavafian, Fred Sherry, Richard Stoltzman), 7835-2-RG, BMG Classics, © 1988 BMG Music. The translation in the above text above differs, e.g., in “the eternity of space or infinity” as compared to liner notes’ “the eternity of space or time” (the French is infini), and in “if one ponders upon” as compared to “if one compares it to” (French is songe à). The rest of the translations follow similar methodology.

3 See Lawrence University’s Gene Biringer’s “Analysis” tab here: I. Liturgie de cristal. Also, under the “Musical Elements” tab the author writes: [Heterophonic texture] can also describe certain polyphonic textures, like that of the first movement of Messiaen’s Quartet, in which there is no discernable relationship among some of the parts . . .  the violin and clarinet parts, which are meant to evoke birdsong, are so independent of the cello part and, especially, the homophonic piano part that they seem to occupy a wholly different sonic world . . . here four characters are speaking simultaneously, unresponsive and perhaps even oblivious to the others. Instead of a harmonious counterpoint between independent but related melodies, we hear a juxtaposition of seemingly unrelated ideas – a true heterophony.

4 For further—and better—explanation, see Peter Gutmann’s Classical Notes site, particularly here.

5 See Roman Catholic Catechism 460.

6 As quoted from the Lawrence University site (see Biblical Source tab) as found in Rebecca Rischin, For the End of Time: The Story of the Messiaen Quartet (New York, NY: Cornell University Press, 2003), p 51.

Not Declining the Divine Name?

John writes some strange things in Revelation, aka The Apocalypse of Jesus Christ. An angel fills a golden censer with fire from the heavenly altar, and throws it to the earth. And there’s an angel standing in the sun, crying with a loud voice to birds flying mid-heaven, “Come and gather together for the great supper of God.”

More mundane perhaps is the case below. It appears John does not decline the Divine Name. Now why would that be strange?

The One Who Is

Before proceeding directly, some necessary background must be provided. The applicable verbiage in Revelation 1:4, our subject verse, comes not from the Hebrew but the Greek of Exodus 3:14.1 This portion of the Greek ‘Old Testament’ was translated from the Hebrew Bible (Tanakh) by Jews in the middle of the 3rd century BC.2 Exodus 3:13 is included, in order to provide necessary context:

3:13 Then Moses said to God, “Behold: I shall go to the sons of Israel and say to them, ‘The God of our fathers has sent me to you.’ They shall ask me, ‘What is His Name?’ What shall I tell them?” 14 God replied to Moses, “I AM THE ONE WHO IS [EGŌ EIMI HO ŌN].” Then He said, “So tell the sons of Israel, ‘THE ONE WHO IS [HO ŌN] has sent me to you.’”3

Moses is concerned that telling the Israelites “The God of our fathers has sent me to you” will be deficient. They may also want to know His Name. In response, God first provides what appears to be His Name:4I AM THE ONE WHO IS.” The pertinent portion is THE ONE WHO IS, for this forms part of God’s directive to Moses when He speaks again:  “So tell the sons of Israel, ‘THE ONE WHO IS [HO ŌN] has sent me to you.’”

It will prove beneficial to examine the (transliterated) Greek. We will begin with an overly literal word-for-word translation, and then proceed until we reach a more suitable rendering at the bottom. In the first part of verse 14 is God’s initial reply to Moses:

EGŌ EIMI HO ŌN
I I-am the being/existing5
I am the existing (one)
I am the-one existing
I am He-who exists/is
I am He Who Is
I am The One Who Is

EGŌ is simply the first person singular pronoun “I”. The second word, EIMI, is the first person singular finite verb “be” (“I-am”). Since person and number are encoded in all Greek finite verbs, each one has a built-in subject. In this instance, it is the first person singular “I”. Therefore, strictly speaking, the pronoun “I” (EGŌ) is not necessary and likely implies emphasis. So, the initial part of God’s response should be understood as the emphatic “I AM”.

The third word, HO, is the Greek article.6 It can be crudely translated simply “the”. In our context, the article functions to substantivize the participle following it. In other words, the Greek article + participle here form a noun, a nominative.

To further explain, a Greek participle is a non-finite verb, which means it can never be a complete sentence unto itself.7 Participles can function either as adverbs (modifying a verb) or adjectives (modifying a noun). When the article precedes it, as it does here (the article HO + participle ŌN), the participle is functioning as an adjective. And when the combination of article + participle stands alone,8 it is a substantival, taking the place of a noun. HO ŌN is in the nominative case, functioning here as the predicate nominative. ŌN is the masculine singular present participle of “be” (=“being”, “existing”, “is”), and taken together with the article yields: THE ONE WHO IS.

A Greek article also encodes grammatical gender (masculine, feminine, or neuter), matching that of its associated part of speech—in this case the participle. Hence, they are both masculine. Therefore, a valid translation is HE WHO IS. For our purposes, we will use THE ONE WHO IS.9

Thus, we translate the above I AM THE ONE WHO IS. The predicate nominative of this proclamation then becomes the subject nominative in God’s instructions to Moses to tell the sons of Israel: ‘THE ONE WHO IS has sent me to you.’

With this background provided, we shall proceed to the applicable portion of Revelation 1:4:

1:4 John to the seven ekklēsiais in Asia: Grace to you, and peace from [apo] THE ONE WHO IS [HO ŌN], THE ONE WHO WAS [HO ĒN], and THE ONE WHO IS COMING [HO ERCHOMENOS]…

John the Revelator is using poor Greek grammar! In the first instance [HO ŌN], it appears John does not decline the Divine Name. To be more specific, in the prepositional phrase (PP) beginning with apo (“from”), THE ONE WHO IS should be grammatically declined to the genitive case [TOU ONTOS], not remain in the nominative case [HO ŌN]. R. H. Charles explains John’s apparent rationale:

We have here a title of God conceived in the terms of time. The Seer [John] has deliberately violated the rules of grammar in order to preserve the divine name inviolate from the change which it would necessarily have undergone if declined. Hence the divine name is here in the nominative [case].10

Mathewson provides further comment:

This PP [prepositional phrase] is one of the first clear examples of John’s numerous solecisms. Here the preposition apo is followed by the nominative case (ho) rather than the expected genitive (tou). There is broad agreement that the grammatical incongruity is intentional . . . The most likely explanation is that by grammatical incongruity the author wishes to draw attention to the titular nature of this expression and the OT text from which it comes: Exod 3:14.11

Of the three elements, the first [HO ŌN] and third [HO ERCHOMENOS] follow the same pattern. Each uses the nominative case in the form of the substantival Greek article + participle after their common preposition apo (“from”). So, both seem to follow the same logic and purpose, if grammatically odd.

The second element, however, is grammatically worse than the other two! It is not ‘merely’ a nominative where it should be in the genitive case. It is in the incongruous form of Greek article + finite verb. Recall that a finite verb encodes person and number; so, each has a built-in subject, and each can form a complete sentence. Thus, if we were to translate the second element word-for-word, it would be the nonsensical THE ONE WHO HE WAS, HE WHO HE WAS, THE HE WAS, or THE WAS. In other words, even when standing on its own—outside the apo (“from”) PP—this construction (article + finite verb) is nonsensical.

Yet this can be explained somewhat. The verb “be” in Greek (EIMI) lacks a past participle, and so the finite verb ĒN (WAS) is substituted as the closest compromise. The purpose of the article preceding it—though absolutely wrong grammatically—is to retain parallelism with the other elements in this PP to the extent possible.12

But one might contend (this writer would) that THE ONE WHO IS [HO ŌN] by itself sufficiently connotes eternality; that is, if God simply IS, then this implies He has no beginning and no end.13 Swete observes that “the [Jewish] Targums read into the words [the Hebrew of Exodus 3:14] a reference to the infinite past and future of God’s eternal ‘now’”.14 

In his Prepositions and Theology, Murray J. Harris refers to this text of Rev 1:4.15 After providing various explanations for the grammatical anomalies, he concludes, “The easiest and most common explanation is that this threefold title of Yahweh is an indeclinable noun that by its very form effectively highlights the unchangeable and eternal character of God.”16

Divine Name or Title?

The careful reader may have observed that HO ŌN is sometimes referred to as the Divine Name and other times as a title or part of a longer title, depending on the source. The larger context of Exodus 3 may provide clarity on this. Following is the same selection above but with the next two verses included:

3: 13 Then Moses said to God, “Behold: I shall go to the sons of Israel and say to them, ‘The God of our fathers has sent me to you.’ They shall ask me, ‘What is His Name?’ What shall I tell them?” 14 God replied to Moses, “I AM THE ONE WHO IS.” Then He said, “So tell the sons of Israel, ‘THE ONE WHO IS has sent me to you.’” 15 Then God spoke again to Moses, “So, say this to the sons of Israel: ‘The LORD [Hebrew: YHWH], the God of your fathers—God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of Jacob—has sent me to you.’ This is My Name forever and how I am to be remembered from generation to generation.16 Now go and gather together the elders of Israel and say to them, ‘The LORD [YHWH], the God of your fathers, appeared to me—God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of Jacob…’ ”

Observe that God specifically states His Name as “The LORD [YHWH]” in verse 15. The Greek ‘OT’ consistently translates the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) as KYRIOS. English versions usually render this the all caps LORD. The portion following His Name, “the God of your fathers”, should probably be understood such that it further describes/defines “The LORD [YHWH]”.

So what do we make of THE ONE WHO IS? Is it to be understood as yet another Name? A Title?

Prior to the transcription of the Targums, a section of the Jewish pseudepigraphic work Sibylline Oracles dated ca. 2nd century BC–20 BC17 describes God as existing eternally, by using present participles of “be” [accusative forms]:

3:15 But He, Himself eternal, has revealed Himself 16 as One Who Is/Exists [ONTA], and so even heretofore exists [prin EONTA], and yet even still hereafter.18

The way this is phrased, it seems that the first part of the sentence (“But He, Himself eternal, has revealed Himself as One Who Is/Exists”) is intended to state God’s eternality, while the rest of the phrase further describes it. He exists, meaning He has existed at all times past up to and including the present, and will continue to exist into the future. And this selection provides a clue to further define John’s likely intention.

There are contemporaneous secular works describing ‘gods’ as existing eternally. But they use Greek finite verbs instead of participles. “Zeus was, Zeus is, Zeus shall be” (Pausanias, Greciae descriptio, 10.12.10).19 Also, “Aion, the god of time, ‘is and was and will be’”.20

Comparatively, Aune notes, “The title [HO ŌN] was known to Jews in Asia Minor as attested by an inscription on an altar from Pergamon that reads THEOS KYRIOS HO ŌN EIS AEI.21 This could be rendered: “God, the LORD, the One who exists/is forever.”

Taken altogether, it is the opinion of this writer that the phrase I AM THE ONE WHO IS in Exodus 3:14 is God’s declaration of His eternal existence—His proclamation of His Divine attribute of eternality. Assuming so, THE ONE WHO IS, then, was used as a Divine Title, not a Divine Name. It seems possible it reflects (part of) a self-description inherent in His Divine Name YHWH, the Tetragrammaton.

Therefore, assuming the above, in apparent reverence, John the Revelator kept this Divine Title HO ŌN intact, instead of subjecting it to the usual grammatical declining. But what about the rest of John’s phrase?

Note that John’s full expression does not follow the pattern in any of the others above. Perhaps the most obvious difference is the third element, which does not reflect ‘infinite future’ but rather God’s coming (HO ERCHOMENOS) at the culmination of salvation-history—the eschaton, the end of all things from our earthly perspective.22 This fact more foundationally supports the position that HO ŌN by itself sufficiently expresses eternality.

Less clear is the time referent, temporal or eternal, for the grammatically incongruous second element (HO ĒN) in the three part phrase. It could be a corollary to “the beginning/originator of God’s creation” (HĒ ARCHĒ TĒ KTISEŌS TOU THEOU) in Revelation 3:14.23 If so, the second and third elements would reflect the entirety of salvation-history, from beginning to end.

If all this holds, John’s expression would reflect God’s intrinsic Self-existence in the Divine Title in the first element, while the second and third elements together would represent the termination points of salvation-history. Stated differently, the first element in this triadic Title reflects God’s eternality, the second and third reflect the beginning and ending, respectively, of God’s direct interaction with humankind in the earthly realm–in temporality.

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1 The Hebrew of the first words of God in Exodus 3:14 is usually rendered I AM THAT I AM.

2 The Greek ‘OT’ is part of the larger Septuagint (LXX), which includes a body of works known as the Apocrypha, aka Deuterocanon (“second canon”) in some traditions.

3 We must also take note that in the next verse God continues the same line of thought, this time by explicitly explaining and stating His Name; however,  John the Revelator does not reference this portion directly. More on this below.

4 Or perhaps this is God’s way of proclaiming an ontological attribute, one exclusive to Him: His eternality. The LORD God simply IS. See note 13.

5 “I am THE BEING” is Brenton’s translation.

6 While English has both a definite article (the) and an indefinite article (a), Greek has only one article. 

7 This is in distinction from finite verbs (see EIMI above), which can and do sometimes form complete sentences unto themselves, since both person and number are appended morphologically. A great example is Jesus’ final word on the Cross in John 19:30: Tetelestai. It is a 3rd person singular perfect tense-form verb, in the middle voice, and in the indicative mood. It is best translated “It is finished”, or, perhaps better, “It has been finished.”

8 A Greek article + participle can also function as an attributive adjective, if it is modifying a noun, thus further describing that noun.

9 Masculine gender here is to correlate with THEOS, GOD, which is also masculine in grammatical gender. While HE WHO IS works, it is subject to possible misinterpretation in English—that God is male in a biological sense.

10 R.H. Charles, Revelation of John, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary; ed. Samuel Rolles Driver, Alfred Plummer, and Charles A. Briggs; Accordance electronic ed. (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1920), para 41640. Charles adds: “It could have been preserved in classical Greek, i.e. apo tou ho ōn. But our author shows no knowledge of this construction” (para 41640; Greek transliterated, bold added for emphasis). Yet the Textus Receptus (the Greek text underlying the KJV) inserts tou here (see this site, e.g.); but, take notice of Charles’ comment that John “shows no knowledge of this construction”. The language/dialect of Classical Greek, from which tou would emanate in this instance, ended about 400 years before the Koine Greek of the NT era. As far as I can determine, the Textus Receptus sources only one manuscript for Revelation here, specifically GA 2814 (12th century), and this tou appears to be a singular reading. That is, it appears to be the only extant manuscript with this reading. Yet, quite a few manuscripts (including 𝔐 [Majority Text]) insert the genitive for “God” (theou) between apo and the nominative HO ŌN, in an attempt to smooth out the grammar.

11 David L. Mathewson, Revelation: A Handbook on the Greek Text, Baylor Handbook on the Greek New Testament (Waco, TX: Baylor University Press, 2016), p 4 (Greek transliterated).

12 Cf. Charles, Revelation, para 41641.

13 Craig R. Koester (Revelation, The Anchor Yale Bible [New Haven: Yale University Press, 2014]) comments that the neuter form of article + EIMI present participle [TO ON] had been used to imply eternality: “Greco-Roman sources sometimes used the form to on for God as “the existent one” or as “being” (Seneca the Younger, Ep. 58.7, 17; Plutarch, Mor. 393B–C)” (p 215).  See notes 4 and 5.

14 Henry B. Swete, The Apocalypse of John: The Greek Text with Introduction, Notes and Indices, 3rd ed. (London: MacMillan, 1917), p 5. This is in the public domain and available online here. And here the Targums understand the Hebrew of Exodus 3:14 as I SHALL BE WHO I SHALL BE [Gr. ESOMAI HOS ESOMAI].

15 Murray J. Harris, Prepositions and Theology in the Greek New Testament: An Essential Reference Resource for Exegesis (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2012), pp 66–67

16 Harris, Prepositions and Theology, p 67. Cf. Swete, Apocalypse: This construction “must be explained by regarding the whole phrase as an indeclinable noun” (p 5).

17 See J. J. Collins, “Sibylline Oracles” in James H. Charlesworth, Ed. The Old Testament Pseudepigrapha: Apocalyptic Literature & Testaments, Anchor Bible Reference Library (New York, NY: Doubleday, 1983): “[Verses 1–45] could have been composed at any time in the late Hellenistic period or early Roman periods. If we assume that they originally formed a unit with any part of 46–92, we can fix their date more precisely . . . Verses 46–62 must be dated shortly after the battle of Actium” (p 360).

18 The Greek (transliterated): all’ autos anedeixen aiōnios autos eauton onta te kai prin eonta, atar pali kai metepeita. Charles renders it: “But he, himself Eternal, hath revealed himself as One who is and was before, yea and shall be hereafter.”

19 The Greek here is Zeus ēn, Zeus estin, Zeus essetai (Ζεὺς ἦν, Ζεὺς ἔστιν, Ζεὺς ἔσσεται).

20 Koester, Revelation, p 215.

21 David Aune, Revelation: Revelation 1–5, Word Biblical Commentary 52A (Dallas, TX: Word Books, 1997) p 30, (Greek transliterated).

22 Charles, Revelation, opines that the present participle of erchomai [“is coming”] is used here instead of the future form, “with a definite reference to the contents of the Book and especially to the coming of Christ, 1:7; 2:5, 16; 3:2; 22:7, 12, etc., in whose coming God Himself comes also [ED: in 1:8, e.g.]” (para 41641).

23 Note the first words of John’s Gospel: “In the beginning (ARCHĒ) was (ĒN) the Word”.

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Similarly themed posts:

An Eternal Christological Conundrum

Looking Past the Future

Jesus’ Kingly Appearance

Being Blessed

What Did Pilate State in John 19:22?: Conclusion (repost)

[This is the second of a two-part repost in recognition of Holy Week. See part I.]

In the conclusion here I shall more closely explore the three verses leading up to Pontius Pilate’s pithy phrase in John 19:22. Due to the rather technical nature of the explanation below, I shall provide a summary as preface.

A ‘mismatch’ in Greek grammatical gender in Jesus’ response to Pilate in John 19:11 may well indicate that Pilate’s God-given authority had a more specific application for his role in the Passion (18:28–19:22). His final phrase (19:22) provides the climax to this circumscribed role. Clues to such an elevated role are found in the narrator’s use of specific verbiage in 19:19 and again in 19:20. These include John’s borrowing of the Latin titulus and yet another ‘mismatch’ in grammatical gender. The Latin titulus becomes the Greek titlos, an apparent neologism, and the ‘mismatch’ occurs in this new word and what is translated “it had been inscribed/written”. The latter phrase (and slight variations) is frequently used before Scripture quotations.

Before proceeding to the analysis, some necessary background in John’s Gospel will be provided first.

Events Leading Up to Jesus’ Arrest

In reaction to Jesus’ increasing popularity following the miracle of Lazarus’ revivification (11:38-45; 12:9-11), some of ‘the Jews’9 conferred with the chief priests and the Pharisees who then summoned the Sanhedrin (11:46-47). They were concerned they would eventually lose their “place and nation” (11:48). While “place” in its Scriptural context may refer to the Temple, it may well (also) mean the leaders’ privileged positions, which were granted by, yet subject to, Roman authority.

At this meeting Caiaphas, the High Priest (11:49) said, “…it is better that one man die for the people than for the whole nation to perish” (11:50; cf. 18:14). The narrator of the Gospel adds:

51 He did not say this of himself but, as High Priest that year he prophesied that Jesus was going to die for the nation, 52 and not only the nation, but also that He would unite into one the children of God who are dispersed.10

The Greek words for “children of God” above are found only here and in 1:12 in John’s Gospel. Thus, ironically, the fulfillment of his words would have different consequences than he likely assumed (cf. 7:35), and would result in the inclusion of Gentile believers as children of God on equal footing (12:32; cf. 4:42; Rom 2:28-29).

They then plotted Christ’s death (11:53), apparently conspiring to arrest Him at the next available opportunity toward that end (11:55-57).

In the meantime, the Devil cast into the heart of Judas Iscariot the desire to betray Jesus (13:2; cf. 13:18, 21). Shortly thereafter, at the Last Supper, “Satan entered into him” (13:27), and then Judas left to carry out his betrayal (13:30). Soon after that he went to an olive grove where he knew Jesus often met with his disciples, bringing with him “a detachment of soldiers and some officers of the chief priests and the Pharisees” (18:1-3).

Jesus’ Arrest and Trials

Jesus was subsequently arrested and brought before Annas, the father-in-law of Caiaphas (18:12-14), who questioned Him (18:19-23) before sending him on to Caiaphas (18:24). Then Christ was led to Governor Pilate’s palace (18:28).

Pilate enquired about the charges levied against Jesus (18:29), and with no direct answer given (18:30) he instructed them to “judge him by your own law” (18:31).11 ‘The Jews’ replied, “We are not authorized to execute anyone” (18:31). This was to fulfill the kind of death Jesus would suffer (18:32; cf. 12:33), as He indicated earlier—being “lifted up”, i.e., crucified (12:32).

Yet the fact that Roman soldiers (18:3) were employed in Jesus’ capture indicates Pilate may well have been apprised of the charges before Christ was presented to him. This would account for his first question to Jesus: “Are you ‘the king of the Jews’?” (18:33). Pilate’s words here could be intended, alternatively, as showing incredulity (cf. Isa 53:2): “You are ‘the king of the Jews’?”12 After Jesus informed him that His kingdom is not of this world (18:36, 37), Pilate found him without guilt, then asked the Jews if they would agree to release Him as per the annual tradition of freeing one prisoner at Passover (18:38-39). The Jews chose Barabbas instead (18:40).

With that Pilate had Jesus flogged (19:1). The soldiers, mocking Jesus’ ‘purported’ kingship, put a crown of thorns on His head and clad Him in a purple robe (19:2-3).

After this, still unconvinced of Christ’s guilt, Pilate tried once more to persuade them to reconsider (19:4). When Jesus came out wearing the crown of thorns and the purple robe, Pilate said (19:5), “Behold, the man!” This is probably Pilate’s way of challenging their charge of His [Jesus’] alleged claim of political kingship.

In response the chief priests and their officials shouted out (19:6): “Crucify! Crucify!” In return Pilate told them to crucify Him—knowing they couldn’t of course—again stating he found the charges to be without foundation (19:6). ‘The Jews’ countered using a different tact, “We have a law, and according to this law He must die, for He made Himself God’s Son” (19:7; cf. 5:18; 10:33). They were likely appealing to Leviticus 24:16, accusing Jesus of blasphemy.

Upon hearing their new allegation Pilate grew more afraid (19:8). Having been immersed in Greco-Roman polytheism, Pilate may have thought Jesus a ‘divine man’. Whatever the case, this new claim prompted him to ask Jesus, “Where are you from?” (19:9). When Christ remained silent Pilate apparently grew agitated, adding, “Don’t you know I have the authority to release you and I have the authority to crucify you?” (19:10). Jesus responded, “You would have no authority over me if it had not been given to you from above; therefore, the one who has delivered me over to you is guilty of a greater sin” (19:11; cf. 10:17-18).

From this point forward Pilate kept seeking to release Him. But, in persistence, ‘the Jews’ shouted, “If you release this fellow, you are no friend of Caesar’s—anyone who makes himself a king opposes Caesar” (19:12). Note the verbal connection between “makes himself a king” and “made Himself God’s Son” (cf. 5:18, 10:33) above.

It was around the “sixth hour” (noon) on the Day of Preparation of Passover week (19:14; cf. 13:1). With this time marker we know that Jesus’ impending death, only a short time away, would be around the same time when priests would begin slaughtering paschal lambs (Exo 12).13 Now the “Lamb of God” (1:29; cf. 1 Cor 5:7; Heb 9:11-15; 1 Pet 1:19; Rev 5:6) is about to meet a similar fate at about the same hour (cf. Exo 12:46; John 19:33, 36).

In response to their last statement (19:12), Pilate brought Jesus out and said (19:13-14), “Here is your king!” To that they shouted: “Take that man away! Take away! Crucify him!”14

Pilate answered (19:15), “Shall I crucify your king?”

The chief priests, in feigned allegiance to Caesar for the sake of expediency, answered (19:15), “We have no king but Caesar!” Their claim could be understood as a denial of their own God, their King (Jdg 8:23; 1 Sam 8:7; Psa 136:3)—at Passover, no less.

Their response was intended to dissuade Pilate from releasing Jesus, as doing so would make it appear he recognized Him as a rival to Caesar’s kingship. And thus Pilate failed in his efforts to free Jesus. ‘The Jews’ and the chief priests forced his hand, and so he handed Jesus over to them for crucifixion. Obviously unhappy with this turn of events, Pilate would exact revenge against them.

The Crucifixion and Pilate’s Enduring Statement

With Jesus formally sentenced, the soldiers took charge (19:16). After carrying His cross, He was ‘lifted up’, placed between two others (19:17-18).

Below is the brief section leading up to and including Pilate’s final statement in John’s Gospel. Each occurrence of the Greek verb root “write” (graphō) is bolded. In addition, titlos is left untranslated, for it is difficult to provide a suitable one-word substitute. An exploration of these terms will commence further below.

19 Yet Pilate also wrote a titlos and fastened it to the cross. It had been inscribed: JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS. 20 Many of the Jews thus read this titlos, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city, and it had been written in Aramaic, Latin, and Greek. 21 The chief priests of the Jews therefore said to Pilate, “Do not write, ‘THE KING OF THE JEWS’, but that man, ‘SAID, I AM KING OF THE JEWS.’”15

22 Pilate answered, “What I have written, I have written.”

Pilate’s inscription was intended as an insult to the Jews. The pen is indeed mightier than the sword here—in more than one way.

Since first century Greek texts lacked punctuation (and spacing between words!), there is some ambiguity as to the exact request of “the chief priests of the Jews” and how they wished to amend Pilate’s original words. I interpret their intention was to replace ‘…THE KING OF THE JEWS’ in the inscription with ‘…SAID, I AM KING OF THE JEWS’, resulting in their proposed verbiage JESUS THE NAZARENE SAID, I AM KING OF THE JEWS. They wanted the words to reflect a claim of Jesus, not a claim of the Jewish nation. From their perspective, the inscription as it stood may “appear to be a formal declaration of Jesus’ identity rather than a charge against Him.”16

Pilate was well aware their charges had been trumped up, so he was undoubtedly taking much pleasure in making a mockery of them in response to their mocked allegiance to Caesar at Jesus’ expense. They may have forced his hand, but he showed them who ultimately had the upper hand.

But Pilate’s vindication would have other ramifications. While we understand the theological implication in Pilate’s inscription—as it stands it makes a true statement of Jesus’ Kingship—taking a closer look at the context while investigating related historical background provides a stronger foundation upon which to construe it this way.

Other Signs

It was not uncommon in first century Rome for a criminal on his way to execution to be accompanied by a sign stating both his name and the offense for which He was condemned. It was either (a) carried by an official walking in front of him17 or (b) hung around his own neck.18 But there is not much historical evidence for placing this same sign on the criminal’s cross, and what is available is ambiguous.19 We must note that none of the Gospels mention anyone carrying a sign of this sort during the Via Dolorosa. This is not to definitively claim someone had not, however. We merely have no explicit evidence. What we know for certain is that a sign was placed onto Jesus’ cross indicating His supposed crime.20

The word used in both instances above referring to the sign accompanying condemned criminals is the Latin titulus. John’s titlos—found only here in 19:19 and 19:20 in all Scripture (and seems to be first used by John)—is a ‘loanword’ from this Latin term. Titulus had rather broad applications in first century Latin texts. In addition to the two examples previously cited, the word was used by Pliny the Younger (ca. AD 61—113) for a notice to rent21 and by Roman poet Ovid (BC 43—AD 17/18) for a notice of public sale.22 It was also used to signify a grave marker.23 As can be deduced, the term applied to both the object inscribed and its inscription in these instances. However, for our purposes, more important is the fact that at times titulus was used solely for the inscription itself in distinction from the object on which it was inscribed.24

The term can refer to epitaphs (i.e., the inscriptions) as distinct from grave markers.25 Roman historian Titus Livius Patavinus (ca. BC 64/59—AD 12/17) applied it to Hannibal’s self-inscription on an altar in which he glowingly described his own achievements.26 Columella (ca. AD 4—70), a writer on agricultural concerns, used the word to reference titles of books.27 Ovid, in the very same work referred to in the previous paragraph, used titulus to signify the title of a pamphlet.28 And most pertinent here, in a work written around the time Christ was born, Ovid employed the term in reference to honorific titles—as applied to Augustus Caesar, for example.29 In similar fashion, in one context Ovid used it as a title acquired by assuming it from those conquered or from some heroic event, yet also in synonymity with “name” (Latin: nomen).30 Yet, given that Pilate’s purpose with the inscription was to antagonize ‘the Jews’, can we rightly apply any of these meanings (epitaph, title, name) to John 19:19?

The text in 19:19 states that Pilate wrote the titlos (titulus) and affixed it to the cross. The task of placing the titlos onto the beam, however, was almost certainly delegated. Yet given the preceding historical investigation—illustrating titulus could refer to either the inscribed object and its inscription or the inscription only—there are a number of possible scenarios with regard to the writing of the words. Perhaps Pilate dictated the desired text to a scribe for inscribing.31 Or maybe he himself penned the words on a papyrus (titlos) and then gave this document to a scribe for inscribing onto the (presumed) board of the titlos.32 It could be that he inscribed the titlos in Latin and then gave it to a secretary to translate and write the Aramaic and the Greek. Whatever the case, in some manner, Pilate wrote the titlos.

Textual Clues and Syntactical Pointers

There’s a grammatical issue in the latter part of v. 19 that may well have a bearing here. The words preceding the inscription—“It had been inscribed” in the translation above (akin to the English past perfect)—are translated from a participle reflecting a neuter subject, yet titlos is masculine. In other words, it does not refer to titlos. (Greek grammar usually requires grammatical gender match.) This exact syntax is found again in 19:20. So, to what or whom does it refer?

This is typically translated impersonally: “There was written” (“It [the inscription] read”).33 However, as Keener notes, each and every time this syntactical structure with this verb is used up to this point in John it references Scripture (it is written; it had been written).34 Keener concludes, “Thus John may ironically suggest that Pilate, as God’s unwitting agent (19:11), may carry out God’s will in the Scriptures.”35 Could God’s Spirit have superintended the writing of the inscription, despite Pilate’s vindictive purpose?

The words it is written in the verses prefacing Scripture references (2:17; 6:31, 45; 10:34; 12:14; 15:25; cf. 5:46; 8:17) are in the Greek perfect tense-form, while 12:16 contains a pluperfect—the same form as 19:19 and 19:20. Though all these are important to my argument here, key is the usage of 12:16, best rendered these things had been written.36 In that context, the narrator notes that the disciples recalled earlier events but only fully understood how they fulfilled Scripture from the vantage point of their post-glorification perspective (after Jesus’ resurrection).37 Before considering this line of inquiry further, how might 19:11 (which Keener referenced above) impact the interpretation in 19:19?

While the authority Pilate possessed in a general sense was certainly “from above” (anōthen), as it is for all rulers and authorities, this was not Jesus’ point here. Similar to v. 19, there is a mismatch in gender in v. 11. Just as the participle in 19:19 is neuter, so it had [not] been given is neuter in 19:11. The Greek word for authority, however, is feminine.38 Thus, if it had not been given to you from above does not refer to Pilate’s general conferred authority but instead is circumscribed to his specific role in the events unfolding at the time: “the fact that Jesus has been given into his hands has been determined by God”.39 More specifically, my contention here is that this specific authority was conferred to Pilate for his entire role in the Passion sequence.

Below is the pertinent portion of the verse:

19:11 ouk eiches exousian kat’ emou oudemian ei mē ēn dedomenon soi anōthen
not you have authority over me nothing if not was it having given you from-above
“You would have no authority over me if it had not been given to you from above.”

Going out a bit further, interestingly, this same syntactical format (‘not _____’ if it has/had not been given from God) is first found in John the Baptizer’s response to those who mentioned Jesus’ baptizing and the increasing numbers going to Him (3:26):

3:27 ou dynatai anthrōpos lambanein oude hen ean mē ȩ̄ dedomenon autō̧ ek tou ouranou40
not s/he be able person to receive and-not one if not may-be it having given him from heaven
A person is not able to receive not one thing if not it may be given to him/her from heaven
“A person is not able to receive anything if it has not been given to them from heaven.”

Though the Baptizer’s statement serves a particular purpose in its context, it should also be seen as a maxim, a general statement.41 These words of the Baptizer are the first with this syntactical structure in John’s Gospel, while Jesus’ words to Pilate are the last. Thus, in my opinion these form bookends, one opening and the other closing an inclusio. The Baptizer’s maxim then relates to some intervening uses of “give” (didōmi), such as parts of the Bread of Life discourse (e.g. 6:37, 39), Jesus’ Prayer (17:7, 11, 12, 22), and Jesus’ cup (18:11).42 Of course, it also relates to Jesus’ statement in 19:11 (ei mē ēn dedomenon, “if it had not been given”). The remaining verse fitting this grammatical structure (6:65) is thematically relevant:

6:65 oudeis dynatai elthein pros me ean mē ȩ̄ dedomenon autō̧ ek tou patros
no one is able to come to me if not may-be it having given him/her of the Father
“No one is able to come to Me if it has not been given to them by the Father.”

The point here is that while God places individuals in certain positions he also orchestrates specific events, using certain individuals to accomplish specific tasks in these events. Thus, understanding Pilate’s unique role in the Passion per Jesus’ phraseology in 19:11, we might be able to assume that this circumscribed, God-given authority extends to the inscription, especially when we consider the syntax in 19:19 and 19:20 (it had been inscribed) and how that relates to other uses of this same structure. Even still, can we make the leap that his words on the inscription are tantamount to writing Scripture? If so, what Scripture is referenced?

Crucial to understanding the Gospel of John is to grasp that the author is writing from a perspective post-Jesus’ resurrection. After Pentecost, the Spirit had been given. And from this perspective the Spirit brings to remembrance past events, further illuminating them to the disciples (14:26; 16:12-15). At various points the narrator implies this by calling attention to some of Jesus’ previous statements (12:32 via 12:33 and 18:32|6:39 via 17:12 and 18:9). In 2:22 the narrator remarks that after “He [Jesus] was raised” the disciples ‘remembered’ His words and “they believed the Scripture (graphē, noun form of graphō) and the word that Jesus spoke” (in 2:19).  But what “Scripture” is ‘remembered’ here? It cannot be the one referenced in 2:16, for 2:17 specifically explains that particular one. By the context the intended Scripture referent appears to be the OT (Tanakh) in a general sense, as it relates to the resurrection.43

Somewhat similar to 2:22 is 12:16—the Triumphal Entry. Here the narrator states that the disciples fully realized that these things had been written about Him only “after Jesus was glorified”. “These things”—which is neuter in the Greek—refers to the Scripture referenced in 12:13 and 12:15. Yet in this same context the narrator relates it was not only the things that had been written but also these things done to Him. We can construe that this refers to the events acted out in fulfillment of those two Scriptures. However, oddly, if at the time of Jesus’ ministry the disciples didn’t understand that He was being proclaimed king, why did the crowd say these things? The seeming contradiction is reconciled if we understand it more broadly (similar to 2:22 above) to mean Jesus’ Kingship in the post-glorification sense.44 In other words, their initial interpretation of “king” was in a political sense, and then after they ‘remembered’ “these things”, God’s Spirit provided further illumination, as in 2:22.

Tying It All Together

Considering the immediately preceding regarding 2:22 and 12:16, and adding in the syntactical connection between 12:16 and 19:19-20, we have a point of contact. One may argue that the grammatical relationship (these things had been written > it had been written/inscribed) is a bit tenuous, but the thematic one certainly applies. Yet the strength of the thematic link should bolster the grammatical. If the narrator relates how the disciples’ remembrance was further illuminated (implying by virtue of the Spirit: 14:26; 16:12-15), then how much more would the narrator/writer himself be likewise illumined?45 When we factor in the syntactical relationship between 19:19-20 and all other uses of it is written / it had been written (as pertaining to Scripture) in conjunction with Pilate’s unique authority in the Passion as revealed in Jesus’ words in 19:11 (and this grammatical and thematic link to 3:27), we have a stronger case for tying all this together.

Therefore, my contention is that John wrote this with the understanding of a dual purpose for the inscription: one for Pilate’s vengeance, and one for the Spirit to make a true identity statement. In other words, John himself recognized that the words Pilate wrote had influence from the Spirit, so he chose (under influence of the Spirit) it had been inscribed/written as a way to make this connection. I further contend this is why John borrowed the Latin titulus in his use of titlos.

Assuming my argument here, one can see it is certainly no leap to enlarge the definition of John’s titlos to include “title” (THE KING OF THE JEWS) and/or “name” (JESUS THE NAZARENE) or both/and (JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS). Thus, rather than merely considering the wording on the inscription as an implication, we have grammatical and contextual reasons to assert with confidence that JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS is indeed written as a Messianic title, and/or a name, a proclamation in a literal sense—in addition to Pilate’s vindication. And the prefatory it had been inscribed designates that the words following, similar to the meaning in 12:16, refer to the OT (Tanakh) generally, rather than one specific verse or section. In other words, the Scripture that Pilate references on his titlos—under the superintending of the Spirit—is the OT (Tanakh) in a general sense, as it relates to Jesus’ Kingship.

Given all this, Pilate’s inscription, with the assistance of God’s Spirit, could be perceived as the climactic contravening of two statements by ‘the Jews’: Jesus “made Himself God’s Son” in 19:7 (cf. 5:18; 10:33) and “makes Himself King” in 19:12 (cf. 1:49; 12:13; 18:38), both encapsulated in Nathaniel’s proclamation in 1:49 “you are the Son of God; you are the King of Israel” (cf. 12:13).

If all this prevails, then the chief priests of the Jews’ plea to Pilate to amend the title may be interpreted ironically as an indirect attempt at usurping God’s authority by unknowingly trying to change Scripture. Interestingly, the narrator does not record that they ‘wanted to change’ (using allassō, e.g.) or something to that effect; instead they say to Pilate “do not write” (using graphō). This is yet another linguistic/grammatical and thematic link further cohering the four verses (19:19-22).

Yet Pilate refused to alter the altar: What I have written, I have written. What I have written, I stand by. The irony then is that Pilate, a pagan and acting as God’s unwitting agent, stood by God’s words, while the opposing Jews who had just executed their Messiah wanted to amend them.

So, what did Pilate “state”? His final words “What I have written, I have written” affirm his inscription, and by doing so, those words remain in Scripture in a state of having been written. And, if the analysis here is accepted, with God’s ‘hand’ on Pilate’s ‘pen’, Pilate ‘wrote’ New Testament Scripture, words that endure to this very day.46

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9 I place ‘the Jews’ in single quotes when the text uses οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι (hoi Ioudaioi), since this is the manner in which the Gospel of John chooses to identify this sub-group. Note, however, that while John’s characterization is mostly negative in the text here, there are quite a few times in the Gospel when the term is used in positive (2:6; 4:22; 8:31; 11:19, 31, 33, 36, 45; 12:9, 11; 19:31) or neutral (1:19; 2:13; 3:1, 22; 5:1, 15; 6:4; 7:2; 11:55; 13:33; 18:20; 19:20, 40, 42) settings (such as in describing a certain festival “of the Jews”), or times in which the group is perhaps understandably perplexed (2:20; 6:41, 52; 7:15; 7:35; 8:57; 10:19). The term’s meaning in John is a bit ambiguous and remains an enigma. Even the designation the Pharisees is sometimes used positively or neutrally (e.g. 9:16). However in this section of John’s Gospel ‘the Jews’ are Jesus’ adversaries.

10 My translation, as are all Scripture quotations in this article. The Latin is also my translation, assisted by online sources and, at times, by others’ English translations. My goal is to adhere closer to a formal equivalence than a dynamic or functional one. To that end, I endeavor to translate nouns for nouns, verbs for verbs, etc.

11 The words of Pilate here may well be an example of artistic license on the part of John the Evangelist. These may have been meant to be ironical in that, according to Mosaic Law—and in truth, of course—Jesus was not guilty of any crime.

12 Since Greek finite verbs encode person and number, a pronoun is not necessary unless the subject is ambiguous; thus, the presence of the pronoun “you” (συ) here is not necessary, and may be used for emphasis.

13 Here I’m following John’s intent in his presentation of events without trying to reconcile them with the Synoptic accounts. See Thompson, John: A Commentary, pp 388-390. Thompson presents a synopsis of (1) the difference between the Synoptic Gospel’s accounts regarding the timing of Jesus’ death as compared to John’s, (2) the problem of associating Jesus’ death with the “sixth hour” (noon) and how this does not seem to correlate with the timing of the slaughtering of Passover lambs.  However, John’s chronology indicates Jesus will be crucified later than noon (he had to first take up his own cross and then walk to the crucifixion site), and so her observations regarding the typical time range for sacrificing Paschal lambs (beginning a bit after 1:30 in the afternoon at the earliest) do not necessarily contradict this. Those attempting to reconcile John with the Synoptics employ various measures. See, e.g. Andreas J. Köstenberger’s contribution in G. K. Beale & D. A. Carson eds., Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker, 2007), p 500.

14 The twice-used verb for “take away” (αἴρω, airō) has a somewhat broad semantic range that can mean take up as in to raise up to a higher position, move to another place, carry away. It seems likely a double meaning is intended here. That is, ‘lift that man up’ may be understood as the additional meaning, in irony.

15 The word translated “Aramaic” is Hebraisti, which some English versions render “Hebrew”. Following Harris (Murray J. Harris, John, Exegetical Guide to the Greek New Testament, Andreas J. Köstenberger & Robert W. Yarbrough, gen. eds. [Nashville, TN: B&H Academic, 2015], p 314), I construe the periphrastic ἦν + γεγραμμένον in v. 19 and v. 20 as akin to the pluperfect of γράφω (cf. 12:16), though I prefer to translate as an English past perfect rather than a simple past.

16 Thompson, John: A Commentary, p 398.

17 In Roman historian Suetonius’ (c. AD 69—122) Caligula—Emperor from AD 37 to 41—an account of a slave sentenced to execution by the Emperor for stealing silver (32.2) was “preceded by a sign indicating the cause for his punishment” (Latin: praecedente titulo qui causam poenae indicaret). Cf. for a similar account in the 2nd century (AD 177) Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History, 5.1.44, in which someone carried a board (πίναξ, pinax) in front of Attalus with the inscription THIS IS ATTALUS THE CHRISTIAN.

18 In Suetonius’ Domitianus (10.2-3)—Domitian was Roman Emperor from AD 81 to 96—the sign describing the charge was placed upon the accused gladiator himself (cum hoc titulo: Impie locutus parmularius; “with this sign [upon him]: ‘A Parmularian [gladiator] impiously spoke’”).

19 Craig S. Keener, The Gospel of John: A Commentary, two volumes (Peabody, MA: Hendrickson, 2003) p 2.1137. “The posting of the accusation on the cross is not well attested, either because those describing the crucifixion had already mentioned it being carried out . . . or because the practice was not in fact standard although, given the variations among executions, in no way improbable . . . (p 2.1137, n 608).

20 Although only Matthew (27:37) and Mark (15:26) specifically refer to a sign stating the cause (aitia) for which Jesus was crucified, this does not mean we cannot infer this from the other Gospels (cf. John 19:6).

21 Letters, 7.27 (“To Sura”): Athenodorus legit titulum: “Athenodorus read the notice (to rent the haunted mansion)”.

22 In Remedia Amoris (Cures for Love), for the notice of sale (Latin: sub titulum, “‘under’ the notice”, i.e., “using the notice”) for the household items the unscrupulous girl had plundered (302). Cf. the oft-neglected Marvin R. Vincent, Vincent’s Word Studies in the New Testament (Peabody, MA: Hendrickson, 2009), p II.283. Cf. Tibellus (c. BC 55-BC 19), Elegiae, 2.4.54: ite sub imperium sub titulumque; “you go under her command and under the notice.”

23 Pliny the Younger: Letters, 6.10.3: post decimum mortis annum reliquias neglectumque cinerem sine titulo sine nomine iacere: “ten years postmortem his remains have been cast down and neglected, without a grave marker and without a name.” That titulus in this context does not mean “epitaph” (the inscription itself as distinct from the marker) is evident by the next line of the epistle, in which the author specifies the words the deceased wanted inscribed (inscriberetur) as his epitaph. Also see Ovid, Fasti, Book IV.23, 44, in which titulus refers to a scroll and the writing upon it (longum scriberet annum vidit  . . . proximus est titulis Epytus: “to see what he might have engraved on the roll . . . next on the scroll is Egyptus”).

24 See F. R. Montgomery Hitchcock, “The Use of γράφειν,” Journal of Theological Studies old series 31 (1930), pp 272-273.

25 Martial (ca. AD 38/41—102/104), Epigrammata (published between AD 86 and 103), I.93.4: Plus tamen est, titulo quod breviore legis: ‘Iunctus uterque sacro laudatae foedere vitae, famaque quod raro novit, amicus erat’: “Yet more is what you glean from this brief epitaph: ‘Knit in the sacred bond of life with an honored reputation rarely known: they were friends’.” Cf. Ovid, Epistulae: Sappho Phaoni, 15.190-195; cf. Pliny the Younger, Letters, 9.19.3: . . . si immortalitatem quam meruere sectantur, victurique nominis famam supremis etiam titulis prorogare nituntur: “ . . . if they now seek immortalization, and the names they have so greatly earned in glory and fame to secure, and to perpetuate themselves by epitaphs.” By the context it seems possible that both the inscription and the grave marker are included in titulus here, but the primary meaning is certainly the epitaph/inscription itself.

26 Titus Livius, Ab Urbe Condita (The History of Rome), 28.46.16 aram condidit dedicavitque cum . . . titulo: “he erected and dedicated an altar with . . . an inscription.”

27 De De Rustica, Book IX, preface: tituli, quern prae-scripsimus huic disputationi: “the title, which we have prefixed to this discourse.” Cf. De De Rustica, Book VIII, preface; cf. Quintilian (ca. AD 35—100), Institutio Oratoria, Book 2.14.4: quos hac de re primum scripserat, titulis Graeco nomine utatur: “from earlier [works] which he had written, Greek name titles were used.” In other words, he used Greek names as titles in earlier works.

28 Remedia Amoris, in the very first line of the poem (1): titulum nomenque libelli, “name and title of this little book”. I interpret this as epexegetical such that “name” further defines titulus. In other words, “name” refers to the title (and ‘title’ refers to the name) on the book’s title page, in order to differentiate it from the other meaning of titulus as both inscription and inscribed object (title page). Alternatively, the terms titulus and nomen could be synonymous here. See note 30.

29 Fasti, Book III.419-420: Caesaris innumeris . . . accessit titulis pontificalis honor; “To Caesar’s innumerable . . .  titles the honor of Pontificate was added.” Cf. M. Tullius Cicero (BC 106—BC43), Against Piso, 9.19: posset sustinere tamen titulum consulatus: “might have the power to sustain the title of consulate.”

30 Fasti, Book I.599-604: si a victis, tot sumat nomina Caesar, quot numero gentes maximus orbis habet, ex uno quidam celebres aut torquis adempti aut corvi  titulos auxiliaris habent. Magne, tuum nomen rerum est mensura tuarum; sed qui te vicit, nomine maior erat: “If Caesar claims names from those conquered, let him take as many as the mighty globe has nations! From one event some celebrate—either from a neck-chain won or allied ravens—the titles they possess. O great one [Pompey the Great], your name is the measure of your deeds, but he who conquered you was greater in name.” Cf. Ovid, Fasti, Book IV.115, in which the goddess Venus is referred to as the titulus of a calendar month. See note 28 for another possibility.

31 See Hitchcock, “The Use of γράφειν,” pp 271-273.

32 Ibid.

33 E.g., Harris, John, p 314. See note 15 above.

34 Keener, Gospel of John, p 2.1138. All but one of the Scripture verses Keener cites here are perfects (as the periphrastic ἔστιν γεγραμμένον: 2:17; 5:46; 6:31, 45; 8:17; 10:34; 12:14; 15:25), the lone exception being 12:16, a pluperfect (the periphrastic ἦν + γεγραμμένα). While the perfects are important, it is this exception in the pluperfect that provides the primary link for the argument I shall put forth here.

35 Keener, Gospel of John, p 2.1138. The author understands Pilate’s conferred authority in 19:11 in a general sense (pp 2.1126-27) rather than in the more circumscribed view I shall pursue below. And Keener does not mention the grammar ‘mismatch’ issue at all.

36 It is actually a periphrastic, an equivalent to the pluperfect—see note 34.

37 See, e.g., the late Larry Hurtado’s pre-publication Remembering and Revelation: The Historic and Glorified Jesus in the Gospel of John.

38 More specifically, the participle δεδομένον is neuter. It would have to be the feminine δεδομένη to agree with the feminine ἐξουσίαν (authority) here. Cf. C. K. Barrett, The Gospel According to St. John: An Introduction with Commentary and Notes on the Greek Text, 2nd ed. (Philadelphia: Westminster, 1978) p 543. In addition, it may be that Jesus’ answer here includes a roundabout answer to the question Pilate posed in 19:9: “Where are you from?” Answer: ἄνωθεν, “from above”.

39 Rudolf Bultmann, The Gospel of John, transl. G. R. Beasley-Murray, Gen Ed., R. W. N. Hoare & J. K. Riches (Philadelphia, PA: Westminster, 1971), p 662. Cf. George R. Beasley-Murray, John, Word Biblical Commentary, D. Hubbard, G. Barker, gen. eds. (Waco, TX: Word, 1987), pp 339-340. Yet neither mentions the grammatical gender mismatch as does D. A. Carson: The Gospel According to John, Pillar New Testament Commentary, D. A. Carson, gen. ed. (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 1991), pp 600-602. But, Carson appears to terminate the circumscribed authority at Pilate’s capitulation in 19:13 (p 603); however, my position here is that this does not terminate until Pilate’s final words in 19:22.

40 There is a difference here in that a neuter subject is found in ἕν, hen (one) from the apodosis.

41 C. K. Barrett, The Gospel According to St. John, p 222.

42 This does mean to imply, of course, that 3:27 (and 6:65 just below) is no longer applicable as a general maxim.

43 See C. K. Barrett, The Gospel According to St. John, p 201.

44 See Carson, The Gospel According to John, pp 433-434.

45 See Jörg Frey, Theology and History in the Fourth Gospel (Waco, TX: Baylor University Press, 2018), pp 151-154.

46 Alternatively, John the Gospel writer took certain liberties in fashioning his Gospel, and in so doing, re-formed some words to make his theological and christological points.

What Did Pilate State in John 19:22? (repost)

[This is a repost (revised a bit) in recognition of Holy Week. Of necessity, it is a bit technical.]

In reading any common English translation of John 19:22, one finds Pilate saying, “What I have written, I have written.”1 This is certainly not incorrect, yet I have a feeling some readers may not quite comprehend the significance of this statement, in part, because they are unaware of distinctions in English verb tenses. Some may erroneously think “What I wrote, I wrote” conveys the same meaning. In addition, there is a theologically important connotation in the larger context that readers of the English versions would most likely not perceive.

Below is the Greek of Pilates’s quote, under that is its transliteration (exchanging Greek letters for English equivalents), and below that is a corresponding working English translation:

ὃ γέγραφα γέγραφα
ho gegrapha gegrapha

What I have written I have written

The first word is the relative pronoun who/which/what, appropriately translated “what” in this context. Following that are two verbs, the second an exact duplicate of the first. We’ll reserve the final translation until after our investigation. All Greek finite verbs encode person and number (1st person singular, I; 2nd person singular, you; 3rd person singular, he/she/it; etc.), though not grammatical gender (male, female, or neuter). In the above, each verb is 1st person singular, and they obviously refer to Pilate. Because finite verbs encode person and number, they may form a subject-verb sentence, depending on context. For instance, Jesus’ final word on the cross is tetelestai (John 19:30), translated “It is finished.”

The verb gegrapha is in the perfect tense-form (of graphō), in the active voice and the indicative mood. The indicative is the most common mood—in Greek and English—expressing facts, false statements assumed to be true, false statements as if true, opinions, or questions. The active voice presents the subject performing the action (Jon ate lunch). Comparatively, the passive voice is used when the subject receives the action (Lunch was eaten by Jon).

The precise meaning indicated by the Greek perfect tense-form is in dispute, though there are a number of theories proposed in recent scholarly literature. Specific discussion of any of these theories is not necessary, however, as some of the older Greek grammars address the issues relative to Pilate’s statement, and we can apply them here. While the Greek perfect tense-form has a wide range of applications, for our purposes it is easiest to conceive it as similar to the English present perfect tense. This is what is reflected in all the English translations of John 19:22 at the above hyperlink (have written).

Some Tense Explanations in English

It may be helpful to briefly explain/review the English present perfect as well as a few other English tenses. If you feel like you are sufficiently proficient in the English, you may skip to the next section.

Verbs in the English present perfect tense express past verbal actions that retain some sort of connection to the present. If I were to state I have written over 100 blog posts, you would rightly infer that all 100+ posts are still available for reading on this blog. They are all in a state of having been written, in a state of ‘written-ness’, and available for viewing.

Alternatively, had I constructed the same sentence but in the English simple past tenseI wrote over 100 blog posts—you might infer that the posts were written at some point in the past yet are no longer available for viewing. More on this below.

The difference between these two English tenses can be found in their respective names. The simple past refers to verbal actions in the past with no further implication of present relevance. The “perfect” in present perfect means “complete”, denoting the past (completed, perfected) portion of the verbal action, while “present” in present perfect indicates the verb’s relevance in the present. The “present” portion of the present perfect tense is formed by using the appropriate auxiliary verb for the present tense, matched by person and number: I have (1st person singular), you have (2nd person singular), she/he/it has (3rd person singular). The “perfect” (“complete”, past) portion is formed by using the appropriate past participle of the main verb (I have written, you have written, she/he/it has written).

Though the simple past tense does not imply continuing relevance, this does not necessarily mean there is no connection to the present. The simple past is merely silent regarding current relevance. There may or may not be continuing relevance. Further context may (or may not) illuminate.

Comparatively, a verb in the English present perfect always implies something about the present. Thus, the context will determine which one is more suitable. Let’s make a comparison:

I lost my marbles yesterday.
I have lost my marbles! (and I am frantically trying to find them)

In the first instance, reflecting the simple past tense, this is a simple narrative statement, implying no continuing relevance. The second instance reflects the present perfect tense, of course. If it took ten minutes to find my marbles, then that would have been ten minutes I was in a state of having lost my marbles, frantically trying to find them. Upon finding the marbles I would be in a new, much happier (and more lucid) state of having found my marbles. At that point I could exclaim—again using the present perfect tense—“I have found my marbles!”, illustrating this new state.

I could recount the episode by using the past perfect tense: “I had lost my marbles yesterday”. The past perfect indicates a past action that had subsequent relevance in the past following that action (without commenting on present relevance). After finding my marbles yesterday I could have put the two sentences together, stating: “I had lost my marbles, but after a frantic search I have found them!”. Thus, had lost (past perfect) reflects the past action + its subsequent past relevance, while have found reflects the past action + present relevance.

Context will determine which verb tense is best to use:

Francois made dinner last Thursday. He might even make dinner again next month.
Mom has made dinner. (and dinner is now ready to eat)
Myrna has watched all the Die Hard movies three times, and she plans to watch them all again.
Jacob had washed the towels. He has now placed them into the dryer. (they are currently drying)
Johnny has listened to the train coming into the station every day for the past three years.

While the simple past tense of  Francois’ dinner in this context implies this was a one-time only or rare occurrence, the present perfect tense of Mom’s dinner implies that dinner is now ready to eat (and we better do so before it gets cold!). As for Myrna, the present relevance of the present perfect tense is the fact that this apparent Bruce Willis fan enjoys these movies so much she wishes to watch them all yet again. The past perfect tense had washed represents the necessary prerequisite for Jacob’s currently drying towels, the latter implied by the present perfect has placed and the adverb “now”. In the final example, it is reasonable to infer that Johnny will listen to the trains yet again tomorrow, given the daily recurring (“every day”) has listened, i.e., present perfect tense.

With this brief review of a few English verb tenses completed, we are ready to proceed to the Greek.

Some Tense Explanations in Koine  (New Testament) Greek

The idea of a past action with continuing relevance in the present in the English present perfect tense is the primary thrust of the Greek perfect tense-form. Smyth provides a basic definition: “a completed action the effects of which still continue in the present”.2 Dana and Mantey use a broader outline:

The significance of the [Ancient Greek] perfect tense in presenting action as having reached its termination and existing in its finished results lies at the basis of its uses. Emphasis, as indicated by context or the meaning of the verb root, may be on either the completion of the action or on its finished results. This possible difference in emphasis lies at the basis of the variation in the uses of the perfect tense.3

Going back to the aforementioned tetelestai, “it is finished” in John 19:30, this is in the perfect tense-form like the twinned verbs in 19:22. Yet here the verb is in the 3rd person singular and the passive voice. Note that, with the exception of Young’s Literal Translation, common English versions do not read it has been finished. This is because, though the larger context implies completed actions leading up to the culmination point, translators deem that it is the state of completion that is the emphasis in the immediate context: It is finished.4

Similarly, in Jesus’ temptation in the wilderness, He answers the Devil’s commands/temptations with gegraptai, “it is written” (Matthew 4:4,7,10, and parallels)—the “it” referring to Scripture. This verb has the same root (graphō) as our subject verse John 19:22, and it is in the same perfect tense-form. The only difference is that here it is a 3rd person singular in the passive voice. The common rendering “it is written” reflects the primary focus on its state of having been written, not on the fact that Scripture was written. As A. T. Robertson comments on its usage in these contexts, “It was written . . . and still is on record.”5 Just like my example of the blog, both the past action and the present results are encoded, but here it is the latter that is understood as the main point: It is written.

Now going back to English for a few moments, let’s say you have a report that needs to be written by 5 o’clock today. At 4:15 your nosy coworker asks if you will meet the deadline. Given that you typically set out to finish a task at least an hour before the deadline (you do, right?), if you express your answer with the verb finish or write, you could say:

I have written the report. (active voice, present perfect)
I have finished the report. (active voice, present perfect)
The report has been written. (passive voice, present perfect)
The report has been finished. (passive voice, present perfect)
The report is written. (passive voice, ___________?)
The report is finished. (passive voice, ___________?)

Though the last two are unquestioningly passive, there is cause to question whether these convey the same meaning as the middle two sentences. To better illustrate, below is a new sentence, stating it in the English present perfect, first in the active voice, then in the passive, followed by a sentence in the same format as the last two above.

Sally has written the book.
The book has been written by Sally.
The book is written by Sally. (?)

To alleviate any possible confusion, observe that the second sentence contains the same exact verb form (has been written) as the passive example further above regarding the report that was due at work. Note the difference between “has written the book” here and “have written the report” above. The different auxiliary verb (has vs. have) reflects the difference between the 3rd person (Sally has) and the 1st person (I have). With this clarified, we’ll resume.

Recall that the English present perfect reflects a completed (perfected) action with relevance in the present. The first two sentences certainly are present perfects. But the third one is an attempt at illustrating the state following the verbal action, in order to focus on the result over against the past action. But is this an accurate way to convey this? Let’s take the same basic sentence just above and put it into the English simple past tense, then the simple present tense, both in answer to the question “Who is the author of this book?”

Sally wrote this book. (active) >> This book was written by Sally. (passive)
Sally writes this book. (active) >> This book is written by Sally. (passive)

Notice how the bolded sentence above is identical to the third one in the previous set. Thus, that sentence, like this one, is in the simple present. Speaking on this specific issue, Smyth writes, “When the [Greek] perfect marks the enduring result rather than the completed act, it may often be translated by the [English] present.”6 Did you notice what I did in the previous sentence? I prefaced the Smyth quotation with writes, the English simple present, mirroring the first of the second pair of sentences just above (Sally writes this book.). My objective was to signify the enduring words in Smyth’s grammar book. This is typical English convention—that is, substituting the English simple present for the English present perfect when the verb’s enduring result is the emphasis in a given context, as opposed to the verb’s completed action.

Yet this convention does not work as well in the 1st and 2nd person for the English present perfect in the active voice. We can quickly deduce that each sentence on the right below cannot be understood to say the same thing as the one on its left:

I have written the document. >> I write the document. (?)
I think you have written this note! >> I think you write this note! (?)

We are now prepared (finally!) to get back to Pilate’s statement. The first instance of gegrapha is best rendered “I have written”, just like the typical English translation.7 This reflects the past action of inscribing JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS (19:19) as well as the present results reflected in those words as they appear on the sign. We could paraphrase this first part of Pilate’s statement (ho gegrapha):

“What I wrote and currently appears on the sign…”

The enduring relevance of this first verb began at the point at which the inscribing of the inscription had been completed (19:19) and continued until the time Pilate responded to the chief priests (19:21-22). In other words, the duration was relatively short.

But what does the second occurrence of gegrapha mean and how should it be translated? The Jews were unhappy with Pilate’s phrasing of the sign, strongly suggesting he amend it. But Pilate was resolute—he wasn’t going to change it. So, what is the best way to translate this second Greek perfect-tense verb? Strictly speaking, “I have written” is correct, and we may well leave it that way. Yet this second gegrapha focuses on the then-present enduring result of the sign’s ‘written-ness’. Since we cannot use the passive voice (“it is written”, “it stands written”) because this verb is in the active voice, and we have determined that the active voice in the English simple present (“I write”) does not adequately convey the results of a present perfect (“I write”), we may phrase (paraphrase) it something like:

“What I wrote and currently appears on the sign, I shall keep recorded.” (I shall not change)
“What I wrote and currently appears on the sign, I shall retain.” (I shall not change)
“What I wrote and currently appears on the sign, I stand by.” (I shall not change)

The last sentence above may be the best, since it does not use a future auxiliary verb (shall) as do the others. To be sure, the future enduring results are implied, but it’s the present enduring results that are specifically encoded by the Greek perfect tense-form here. Then again, the state of ‘written-ness’ should be understood as remaining unless and until some further action brings about a new state. With none specified in the larger context, it is safe to assume this state will continue on.8

Thus, to capture the overall meaning here—though it’s not as pithy as “What I have written, I have written”—I might render John 19:22:

Pilate replied, “What I have written, I stand by.”

Pilate’s inscription JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS remains written. What does this signify theologically in its context? The next part will elucidate.

______________________________

1 I am taking the words in the Greek text of John as the words of Pilate, whether or not these reflect his very utterance. The words may well be John’s own rendering in service of a larger theological motif. More on this later.

2 Herbert W. Smyth, Greek Grammar, Gordon M. Messing, rev. (Cambridge, MA: Harvard University Press, 1956 [1920]), p 434, § 1945.

3 H. E. Dana & Julius R. Mantey, A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament (NY: Macmillan, 1955), p 201 § 184.

4 Of course, one must concede that because of the verb root itself—complete, finish—the past necessarily recedes in favor of the state of completion. In other words, it cannot later become ‘unfinished’. Note Marianne Meye Thompson’s objection to this rendering (John: A Commentary, New Testament Library, C. Clifton Black, et al eds. [Louisville, KY: Westminster John Knox, 2015]), “…Jesus’ last words from the cross, tetelestai, ‘It is finished!’ (19:30) surely means ‘it has been accomplished’ or ‘it has been completed’ with reference to completing God’s mission and work” (p 395). I have to agree.

5 A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (Nashville, TN: Broadman Press, 1934), p 895.

6 Smyth, Grammar, p 434, § 1946.

7 Some grammars and commentaries claim this first γέγραφα is “aoristic”, functioning as if an aorist tense, akin to the English simple past wrote. Entailed in this position is that the second γέγραφα is construed as an English present perfect have written, with a focus on the enduring result. Robertson makes a strong case that the perfect never functions ‘aoristically’ in the NT, though it does post-NT era (A Grammar of the GNT, pp 898-902; cf. 895 [β]).

8 Yes, of course, the cross was eventually taken down; however, the point here is that the inscription was not altered.

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